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NURS306 OB QUIZZES 1–6 — 100 Q&A REVIEW Comprehensive concept review for maternal-newborn nursing.

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NURS306 OB QUIZZES 1–6 — 100 Q&A REVIEW Comprehensive concept review for maternal-newborn nursing.

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CMCA
Grado
CMCA











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Institución
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CMCA

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Subido en
4 de diciembre de 2025
Número de páginas
35
Escrito en
2025/2026
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NURS306 OB QUIZZES 1–6 — 100 Q&A
REVIEW
Comprehensive concept review for
maternal-newborn nursing.

QUIZ 1: REPRODUCTIVE ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, & PRENATAL CARE

1. What is the primary hormone responsible for ovulation?
A: Luteinizing hormone (LH).

2. Where does fertilization typically occur?
A: The ampulla of the fallopian tube.

3. Which hormone maintains the uterine lining during early pregnancy?
A: Progesterone.

4. What is the normal duration of pregnancy in weeks?
A: 40 weeks from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP).

5. What is Naegel’s rule?
A: Estimate expected date of delivery (EDD): take first day of LMP, subtract 3 months, add 7
days.

6. Which prenatal lab test screens for neural tube defects?
A: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP).

7. When is the first trimester?
A: Weeks 1–13.

8. What is Chadwick’s sign?
A: Bluish-purple coloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to increased vascularity.

9. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A: MMR (live vaccine).

, 10. Recommended weight gain for normal BMI pregnancy?
A: 25–35 lbs.



QUIZ 2: FETAL DEVELOPMENT & ANTEPARTUM ASSESSMENT

11. When can fetal heartbeat first be detected by Doppler?
A: 10–12 weeks gestation.

12. The fetal structure that allows blood to bypass the lungs is:
A: Ductus arteriosus.

13. Which vitamin supplementation is critical pre-conception to prevent neural tube
defects?
A: Folic acid (400–800 mcg/day).

14. What does the Apgar score assess?
A: Newborn’s condition at 1 & 5 minutes after birth (Heart rate, Respiration, Muscle tone, Reflex
irritability, Color).

15. At what gestational age is lung surfactant production typically adequate?
A: By 35–36 weeks.

16. Purpose of the biophysical profile (BPP)?
A: Assess fetal well-being via ultrasound (tone, movement, breathing, amniotic fluid volume)
and NST.

17. Normal fetal heart rate (FHR) range:
A: 110–160 bpm.

18. Placenta function includes all except:
A: Fetal gas exchange, nutrition, waste removal, hormone production. (It does not produce
urine.)

19. Quickening is usually felt by mother at:
A: 18–20 weeks in primigravida, earlier in multigravida.

20. In fetal circulation, oxygenated blood from placenta enters via:
A: Umbilical vein → ductus venosus → inferior vena cava.



QUIZ 3: INTRAPARTUM CARE (LABOR & DELIVERY)

, 21. The five Ps of labor:
A: Passenger (fetus), Passage (pelvis), Powers (contractions), Position (maternal), Psyche.

22. Which fetal position is most favorable for delivery?
A: Occiput anterior (OA).

23. Normal duration of active phase of first stage labor?
A: About 3–5 cm to 7 cm dilation, contractions stronger, lasting 45–60 sec, 3–5 min apart.

24. What defines “prolonged deceleration” in FHR monitoring?
A: Deceleration lasting >2 minutes but <10 minutes.

25. What is station 0?
A: Fetal presenting part at level of ischial spines.

26. When should amniotomy be avoided if possible?
A: If fetus is not engaged (floating), due to cord prolapse risk.

27. Nursing care for cord prolapse:
A: Knee-chest position, relieve pressure on cord, prepare for emergency cesarean.

28. True vs. false labor:
A: True labor = contractions increase in frequency, duration, intensity with cervical change; false
labor = no cervical change.

29. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid may indicate:
A: Fetal distress (but not always); requires neonatal resuscitation readiness.

30. When is oxytocin (Pitocin) contraindicated?
A: With previous classical uterine incision, cephalopelvic disproportion, fetal distress, placenta
previa.



QUIZ 4: HIGH-RISK INTRAPARTUM & OB EMERGENCIES

31. Sign of placental abruption:
A: Dark red bleeding, painful, rigid uterus, fetal distress.

32. Sign of placenta previa:
A: Painless bright red bleeding in 3rd trimester.

33. Nursing priority for eclampsia seizure:
A: Ensure airway, safety, side-lying position, give MgSO₄ as ordered, prepare for delivery.

, 34. Therapeutic MgSO₄ level range:
A: 4–8 mg/dL; toxicity >8 mg/dL (loss of reflexes, respiratory depression).

35. What is HELLP syndrome?
A: Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets (complication of preeclampsia).

36. Management for uterine atony:
A: Fundal massage, oxytocin, methylergonovine, carboprost, possible surgery.

37. Early decelerations are caused by:
A: Head compression (normal pattern, mirrors contraction).

38. Variable decelerations indicate:
A: Cord compression; change position, amnioinfusion possible.

39. Late decelerations indicate:
A: Uteroplacental insufficiency; improve placental perfusion (lateral position, O₂, IV fluids, notify
provider).

40. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia:
A: Gestational diabetes, macrosomia, prolonged second stage, maternal obesity.



QUIZ 5: POSTPARTUM CARE

41. Normal postpartum fundal position 12 hours after delivery:
A: At umbilicus or 1 cm below.

42. Lochia rubra lasts:
A: 1–3 days postpartum; bright red, small clots normal.

43. Postpartum blues peak when?
A: Days 3–5, resolves by day 10–14.

44. S/S of postpartum hemorrhage:
A: Saturing >1 pad/hour, tachycardia, hypotension, boggy uterus.

45. Best method to assess for postpartum DVT?
A: Homans’ sign is unreliable; use ultrasound if suspected.

46. Nursing intervention for uterine subinvolution:
A: Assess for retained placental fragments, infection; may need oxytocics or D&C.
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