GEORGETTE PMHNP Review Actual
Exam
GEORGETTE PMHNP Review Actual
Exam Newest 2025/2026 Complete All
500 Verified Questions And Correct
Answers with Detailed Rationales
(Verified Answers) |Already Graded
A+||Brand New
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments
of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane) - Answer ✓✓A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the recommended
direct acting dopamine receptor agonist to help decrease the dopamine blockade. Danrolene
(Dantrium) is a muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin) and Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are
anticholinergic medications used for extrapyramidal side effects (EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for over
4 years. Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is strictly
contraindicated with Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
TEST BANK A+ 1
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Exam
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine - Answer ✓✓D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a patient is treated on a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the
following actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor
closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - Answer ✓✓B)
Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or
granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune
system. At a WBC of 4,000, the recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential
twice a week while patient may continue clozapine in the absence of any other signs or
symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide
attempts. The PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only
antipsychotic to reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia?
A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
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D) Clozaril (clozapine) - Answer ✓✓D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic
medication that had been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with
schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po
daily for the past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an
outpatient follow-up visit. During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well,
reporting the flu. She also states she has not taken her medication in the last five days. Which
of the following symptoms would she be describing if you suspect selective serotonin
reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea. - Answer ✓✓A) Agitation;
nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium
The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like
symptoms. If the patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of
autonomic instability.
Which of the following statements reflect the current understanding of dopamine (DA)
pathways and clinical symptoms in schizophrenia?
A) Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
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B) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA deficit in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
C) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms
are related to DA deficit in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.
Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area. - Answer ✓✓A)
Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
Negative symptoms & cognitive impairment are thought to be related to hypoactivity of the
mesocortical dopiminergic tract, which by its association with the prefrontal cortex and
neocortex contributes to motivation, planning, sequencing of behaviors in time, attention,
and social behavior. Positive symptoms (hallucination and delusions) are thought to be caused
by dopamine hyperactivity in the mesolimbic tract, which regulates emotion. This
hyperactivity could result in overactive modulation of nueurotransmission from the nucleus
accumbens.
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is implicated in alertness and anxiety. What area of
the brain has a large majority of norepinephrine neurons?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Locus Coeruleus
D) Nucleus Accumbens - Answer ✓✓C) Locus coeruleus
There are two areas in the brain that produce norepinephrine neurons, one is the locus
coeruleus and the other is the medullary reticular formation.
TEST BANK A+ 4
Exam
GEORGETTE PMHNP Review Actual
Exam Newest 2025/2026 Complete All
500 Verified Questions And Correct
Answers with Detailed Rationales
(Verified Answers) |Already Graded
A+||Brand New
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments
of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane) - Answer ✓✓A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the recommended
direct acting dopamine receptor agonist to help decrease the dopamine blockade. Danrolene
(Dantrium) is a muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin) and Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are
anticholinergic medications used for extrapyramidal side effects (EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for over
4 years. Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is strictly
contraindicated with Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
TEST BANK A+ 1
, GEORGETTE PMHNP Review Actual
Exam
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine - Answer ✓✓D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a patient is treated on a
monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) due to the risk of hypertensive crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the
following actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor
closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely. - Answer ✓✓B)
Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or
granulocytes of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune
system. At a WBC of 4,000, the recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential
twice a week while patient may continue clozapine in the absence of any other signs or
symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide
attempts. The PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only
antipsychotic to reduce the risk of suicide in schizophrenia?
A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
TEST BANK A+ 2
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Exam
D) Clozaril (clozapine) - Answer ✓✓D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic
medication that had been shown to reduce the risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with
schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po
daily for the past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an
outpatient follow-up visit. During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well,
reporting the flu. She also states she has not taken her medication in the last five days. Which
of the following symptoms would she be describing if you suspect selective serotonin
reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea. - Answer ✓✓A) Agitation;
nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium
The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like
symptoms. If the patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of
autonomic instability.
Which of the following statements reflect the current understanding of dopamine (DA)
pathways and clinical symptoms in schizophrenia?
A) Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
TEST BANK A+ 3
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Exam
B) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA deficit in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
C) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms
are related to DA deficit in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.
Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area. - Answer ✓✓A)
Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are
related to DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
Negative symptoms & cognitive impairment are thought to be related to hypoactivity of the
mesocortical dopiminergic tract, which by its association with the prefrontal cortex and
neocortex contributes to motivation, planning, sequencing of behaviors in time, attention,
and social behavior. Positive symptoms (hallucination and delusions) are thought to be caused
by dopamine hyperactivity in the mesolimbic tract, which regulates emotion. This
hyperactivity could result in overactive modulation of nueurotransmission from the nucleus
accumbens.
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is implicated in alertness and anxiety. What area of
the brain has a large majority of norepinephrine neurons?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Locus Coeruleus
D) Nucleus Accumbens - Answer ✓✓C) Locus coeruleus
There are two areas in the brain that produce norepinephrine neurons, one is the locus
coeruleus and the other is the medullary reticular formation.
TEST BANK A+ 4
