NCLEX PN EXAM AND STUDY GUIDE
WITH NGN Actual Questions & Verified
Answers ,Plus Explained
Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed Pass 2026/Latest
Update/Instant Download Pdf
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
reports increased shortness of breath. Which nursing action is
most appropriate?
A. Encourage deep-breathing exercises every hour
B. Administer oxygen at 5 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
D. Limit fluid intake to reduce pulmonary congestion
Answer: C. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Rationale: High Fowler’s position promotes lung expansion and
eases breathing in clients with COPD. Oxygen should be titrated
carefully to avoid suppressing respiratory drive.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and
flank pain. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Slow the transfusion and monitor vital signs
B. Stop the transfusion and notify the provider
C. Administer antipyretics and continue transfusion
D. Increase the infusion rate to finish quickly
,Answer: B. Stop the transfusion and notify the provider
Rationale: These are signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
transfusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further
complications.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client with type 1 diabetes who
has hypoglycemia. Which intervention should be implemented
first?
A. Administer 10 units of insulin
B. Provide 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
C. Check blood pressure
D. Encourage the client to rest
Answer: B. Provide 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency; fast-acting
carbohydrates quickly raise blood glucose levels.
4. Which client statement indicates understanding of heart failure
management?
A. “I should limit my daily fluid intake to 1–2 liters.”
B. “I can take extra doses of my diuretic if I gain weight.”
C. “I should avoid taking my ACE inhibitor in the morning.”
D. “I should limit exercise to once a month.”
Answer: A. “I should limit my daily fluid intake to 1–2 liters.”
Rationale: Fluid restriction helps manage fluid overload in heart
failure. Clients should weigh daily and monitor for edema.
5. A client with a new ileostomy asks about skin care. Which
instruction is correct?
A. Use alcohol-based wipes to clean the skin
B. Change the appliance every 24 hours
C. Clean skin gently with mild soap and water
D. Apply ointment under the wafer before applying
,Answer: C. Clean skin gently with mild soap and water
Rationale: Mild soap and water prevent irritation and protect
peristomal skin. Alcohol can cause dryness and breakdown.
6. The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about dietary
changes. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I can continue eating processed foods as long as I avoid
salt.”
B. “I should choose fresh fruits and vegetables daily.”
C. “I should only avoid sugar, salt is fine.”
D. “I should eat more red meats for protein.”
Answer: B. “I should choose fresh fruits and vegetables daily.”
Rationale: A diet rich in fruits and vegetables and low in sodium
helps control blood pressure.
7. A client with a nasogastric tube reports nausea. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antiemetic
B. Assess for tube placement and patency
C. Increase the tube feeding rate
D. Notify the provider immediately
Answer: B. Assess for tube placement and patency
Rationale: Nausea may indicate tube obstruction or misplacement.
Safety and proper function must be verified before other
interventions.
8. A client is receiving morphine for post-operative pain. Which
assessment indicates a potential adverse effect?
A. Respiratory rate 8/min
B. Pain score 3/10
C. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
D. Heart rate 82 bpm
, Answer: A. Respiratory rate 8/min
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. A rate
<10/min is a critical finding requiring intervention.
9. Which is the most appropriate nursing action for a client with a
fractured femur in skeletal traction?
A. Remove weights daily to allow movement
B. Ensure weights hang freely without touching the floor
C. Apply additional weight to relieve discomfort
D. Encourage frequent repositioning independently
Answer: B. Ensure weights hang freely without touching the floor
Rationale: Proper traction alignment maintains bone
immobilization. Weights should not touch the floor, and removal
should only occur under provider order.
10. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV potassium. Which
assessment requires immediate intervention?
A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
B. IV site reddened and swollen
C. Client reports mild thirst
D. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
Answer: B. IV site reddened and swollen
Rationale: Redness and swelling indicate infiltration or phlebitis,
which can be dangerous with potassium IV; this requires prompt
action.
11. A client with Parkinson’s disease has difficulty swallowing.
Which dietary modification is most appropriate?
A. Offer thin liquids frequently
B. Encourage a diet high in fiber and soft foods
WITH NGN Actual Questions & Verified
Answers ,Plus Explained
Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed Pass 2026/Latest
Update/Instant Download Pdf
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
reports increased shortness of breath. Which nursing action is
most appropriate?
A. Encourage deep-breathing exercises every hour
B. Administer oxygen at 5 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
D. Limit fluid intake to reduce pulmonary congestion
Answer: C. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
Rationale: High Fowler’s position promotes lung expansion and
eases breathing in clients with COPD. Oxygen should be titrated
carefully to avoid suppressing respiratory drive.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops chills, fever, and
flank pain. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Slow the transfusion and monitor vital signs
B. Stop the transfusion and notify the provider
C. Administer antipyretics and continue transfusion
D. Increase the infusion rate to finish quickly
,Answer: B. Stop the transfusion and notify the provider
Rationale: These are signs of a hemolytic transfusion reaction. The
transfusion should be stopped immediately to prevent further
complications.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client with type 1 diabetes who
has hypoglycemia. Which intervention should be implemented
first?
A. Administer 10 units of insulin
B. Provide 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
C. Check blood pressure
D. Encourage the client to rest
Answer: B. Provide 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate
Rationale: Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency; fast-acting
carbohydrates quickly raise blood glucose levels.
4. Which client statement indicates understanding of heart failure
management?
A. “I should limit my daily fluid intake to 1–2 liters.”
B. “I can take extra doses of my diuretic if I gain weight.”
C. “I should avoid taking my ACE inhibitor in the morning.”
D. “I should limit exercise to once a month.”
Answer: A. “I should limit my daily fluid intake to 1–2 liters.”
Rationale: Fluid restriction helps manage fluid overload in heart
failure. Clients should weigh daily and monitor for edema.
5. A client with a new ileostomy asks about skin care. Which
instruction is correct?
A. Use alcohol-based wipes to clean the skin
B. Change the appliance every 24 hours
C. Clean skin gently with mild soap and water
D. Apply ointment under the wafer before applying
,Answer: C. Clean skin gently with mild soap and water
Rationale: Mild soap and water prevent irritation and protect
peristomal skin. Alcohol can cause dryness and breakdown.
6. The nurse is teaching a client with hypertension about dietary
changes. Which statement indicates correct understanding?
A. “I can continue eating processed foods as long as I avoid
salt.”
B. “I should choose fresh fruits and vegetables daily.”
C. “I should only avoid sugar, salt is fine.”
D. “I should eat more red meats for protein.”
Answer: B. “I should choose fresh fruits and vegetables daily.”
Rationale: A diet rich in fruits and vegetables and low in sodium
helps control blood pressure.
7. A client with a nasogastric tube reports nausea. Which action
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an antiemetic
B. Assess for tube placement and patency
C. Increase the tube feeding rate
D. Notify the provider immediately
Answer: B. Assess for tube placement and patency
Rationale: Nausea may indicate tube obstruction or misplacement.
Safety and proper function must be verified before other
interventions.
8. A client is receiving morphine for post-operative pain. Which
assessment indicates a potential adverse effect?
A. Respiratory rate 8/min
B. Pain score 3/10
C. Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg
D. Heart rate 82 bpm
, Answer: A. Respiratory rate 8/min
Rationale: Morphine can cause respiratory depression. A rate
<10/min is a critical finding requiring intervention.
9. Which is the most appropriate nursing action for a client with a
fractured femur in skeletal traction?
A. Remove weights daily to allow movement
B. Ensure weights hang freely without touching the floor
C. Apply additional weight to relieve discomfort
D. Encourage frequent repositioning independently
Answer: B. Ensure weights hang freely without touching the floor
Rationale: Proper traction alignment maintains bone
immobilization. Weights should not touch the floor, and removal
should only occur under provider order.
10. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV potassium. Which
assessment requires immediate intervention?
A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
B. IV site reddened and swollen
C. Client reports mild thirst
D. Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg
Answer: B. IV site reddened and swollen
Rationale: Redness and swelling indicate infiltration or phlebitis,
which can be dangerous with potassium IV; this requires prompt
action.
11. A client with Parkinson’s disease has difficulty swallowing.
Which dietary modification is most appropriate?
A. Offer thin liquids frequently
B. Encourage a diet high in fiber and soft foods
