GRAY'S ANATOMY FOR STUDENTS
5TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)RICHARD L. DRAKE
TEST BANK
1
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Imaging
Stem
A radiologist hands you an axial (transverse) CT image of the
chest and asks you to localize a small pulmonary nodule to the
patient’s “left lung.” The image is displayed in the standard
radiological orientation. Which interpretation will place the
nodule correctly relative to the patient?
A. The nodule appears on the viewer’s right, which corresponds
to the patient’s left.
B. The nodule appears on the viewer’s left, which corresponds
to the patient’s left.
C. Orientation cannot be determined on axial CT; the
technologist must supply laterality.
,D. Axial CT images are always displayed with patient anterior to
the top of image, so viewer left = patient left.
Correct answer: A
Correct Answer Rationale (3–4 sentences)
Axial CT images are typically displayed in the radiological (view-
from-the-feet) convention: the viewer looks from the patient’s
feet toward the head. In that orientation the patient’s right
appears on the viewer’s left and the patient’s left appears on
the viewer’s right. Therefore, a nodule shown on the viewer’s
right corresponds to the patient’s left. This convention prevents
laterality errors if the interpreter is aware of the orientation.
Incorrect Answer Rationales (1–3 sentences each)
B. Incorrect — viewer left corresponds to the patient’s right in
the standard radiological convention, not the patient’s left.
C. Incorrect — while technologist annotation is helpful, axial CTs
are conventionally oriented and laterality can be inferred.
D. Incorrect — the standard view is from the feet (radiological),
not with anterior consistently at the top in a way that makes
viewer left = patient left.
Teaching point
Axial CT uses a view-from-feet convention — viewer right =
patient left.
Citation
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
,2
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — What is anatomy?
Stem
A patient demonstrates inability to perform shoulder abduction
beyond 15° after a proximal humeral fracture. You must decide
whether the deficit is due to muscular rupture or nerve injury.
Which anatomic relationship best explains an inability to initiate
abduction past 15°?
A. Disruption of the deltoid muscle fibers at their insertion on
the deltoid tuberosity.
B. Injury to the axillary nerve supplying the deltoid and teres
minor as it courses around the surgical neck.
C. Tear of the rotator cuff tendons causing loss of supraspinatus
function.
D. Dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint restricting scapular
rotation.
Correct answer: B
Correct Answer Rationale (3–4 sentences)
The axillary nerve courses posteriorly around the surgical neck
of the humerus and innervates the deltoid, the primary muscle
for initiating and maintaining shoulder abduction beyond the
first 15°. A proximal humeral (surgical neck) fracture commonly
injures the axillary nerve, producing deltoid paralysis and loss of
abductive strength. While supraspinatus (rotator cuff)
, contributes to the first 10–15° of abduction, inability beyond
15° implicates deltoid innervation. Therefore axillary nerve
injury best explains the clinical deficit.
Incorrect Answer Rationales
A. Incorrect — a deltoid insertion tear would produce
weakness, but the more typical clinical mechanism after a
surgical-neck fracture is axillary nerve injury.
C. Incorrect — supraspinatus primarily initiates abduction up to
~15°; loss of supraspinatus alone rarely prevents abduction
beyond 15°.
D. Incorrect — AC joint dislocation limits scapular mechanics
but does not selectively prevent abduction beyond 15°
immediately after fracture.
Teaching point
Axillary nerve vulnerability at the surgical neck explains deltoid
paralysis and loss of abduction.
Citation
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
3
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Imaging
Stem
An upright chest radiograph of an acute-abdomen patient
shows a crescent of radiolucency beneath the right
5TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)RICHARD L. DRAKE
TEST BANK
1
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Imaging
Stem
A radiologist hands you an axial (transverse) CT image of the
chest and asks you to localize a small pulmonary nodule to the
patient’s “left lung.” The image is displayed in the standard
radiological orientation. Which interpretation will place the
nodule correctly relative to the patient?
A. The nodule appears on the viewer’s right, which corresponds
to the patient’s left.
B. The nodule appears on the viewer’s left, which corresponds
to the patient’s left.
C. Orientation cannot be determined on axial CT; the
technologist must supply laterality.
,D. Axial CT images are always displayed with patient anterior to
the top of image, so viewer left = patient left.
Correct answer: A
Correct Answer Rationale (3–4 sentences)
Axial CT images are typically displayed in the radiological (view-
from-the-feet) convention: the viewer looks from the patient’s
feet toward the head. In that orientation the patient’s right
appears on the viewer’s left and the patient’s left appears on
the viewer’s right. Therefore, a nodule shown on the viewer’s
right corresponds to the patient’s left. This convention prevents
laterality errors if the interpreter is aware of the orientation.
Incorrect Answer Rationales (1–3 sentences each)
B. Incorrect — viewer left corresponds to the patient’s right in
the standard radiological convention, not the patient’s left.
C. Incorrect — while technologist annotation is helpful, axial CTs
are conventionally oriented and laterality can be inferred.
D. Incorrect — the standard view is from the feet (radiological),
not with anterior consistently at the top in a way that makes
viewer left = patient left.
Teaching point
Axial CT uses a view-from-feet convention — viewer right =
patient left.
Citation
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
,2
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — What is anatomy?
Stem
A patient demonstrates inability to perform shoulder abduction
beyond 15° after a proximal humeral fracture. You must decide
whether the deficit is due to muscular rupture or nerve injury.
Which anatomic relationship best explains an inability to initiate
abduction past 15°?
A. Disruption of the deltoid muscle fibers at their insertion on
the deltoid tuberosity.
B. Injury to the axillary nerve supplying the deltoid and teres
minor as it courses around the surgical neck.
C. Tear of the rotator cuff tendons causing loss of supraspinatus
function.
D. Dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint restricting scapular
rotation.
Correct answer: B
Correct Answer Rationale (3–4 sentences)
The axillary nerve courses posteriorly around the surgical neck
of the humerus and innervates the deltoid, the primary muscle
for initiating and maintaining shoulder abduction beyond the
first 15°. A proximal humeral (surgical neck) fracture commonly
injures the axillary nerve, producing deltoid paralysis and loss of
abductive strength. While supraspinatus (rotator cuff)
, contributes to the first 10–15° of abduction, inability beyond
15° implicates deltoid innervation. Therefore axillary nerve
injury best explains the clinical deficit.
Incorrect Answer Rationales
A. Incorrect — a deltoid insertion tear would produce
weakness, but the more typical clinical mechanism after a
surgical-neck fracture is axillary nerve injury.
C. Incorrect — supraspinatus primarily initiates abduction up to
~15°; loss of supraspinatus alone rarely prevents abduction
beyond 15°.
D. Incorrect — AC joint dislocation limits scapular mechanics
but does not selectively prevent abduction beyond 15°
immediately after fracture.
Teaching point
Axillary nerve vulnerability at the surgical neck explains deltoid
paralysis and loss of abduction.
Citation
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
3
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Imaging
Stem
An upright chest radiograph of an acute-abdomen patient
shows a crescent of radiolucency beneath the right
