NGN ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM
FORM A, B AND C ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
QUESTIONS BANK WITH CORRECT DETAILED
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NGN-Style RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Questions & Answers
Fundamentals & Safety
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of falls. Which action is the priority when
developing the client's plan of care?
A. Keep the bed in a low position.
B. Place a "fall risk" sign on the door.
C. Ensure the call light is within reach.
D. Complete a fall risk assessment.
Answer: D. Complete a fall risk assessment. ✓
Rationale: The first step of the nursing process is assessment. A comprehensive fall risk
assessment (using a tool like the Morse Fall Scale) must be completed to identify specific risks
and guide the other interventions (A, B, and C).
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs.
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse.
C. Assess the client for a history of transfusion reactions.
D. Ensure informed consent is in the medical record.
Answer: D. Ensure informed consent is in the medical record. ✓
Rationale: While all are important, the legal and ethical requirement of informed consent must
be confirmed before the procedure can be initiated.
3. The nurse discovers a fire in a client's room. What is the sequence of actions the nurse
should take? (Place in order)
1. Activate the fire alarm.
2. Remove the client from the room.
, 3. Close the door to the room.
4. Use the appropriate fire extinguisher.
Answer: R - A - C - E (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish) - 2, 1, 3, 4 ✓
Rationale: The priority is always to rescue the client. Then, alert others by activating the
alarm. Confining the fire by closing doors prevents spread. Extinguishing is the last
priority if the fire is small.
4. A client is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile. Which personal protective
equipment (PPE) should the nurse don upon entry?
A. Gown and Gloves
B. Gown, Gloves, and N95 Mask
C. Gloves Only
D. Gown, Gloves, and Face Shield
Answer: A. Gown and Gloves ✓
Rationale: C. diff is spread via spores in feces. Gown and gloves are required to prevent contact
with contaminated surfaces and the client's environment. A mask is not typically required unless
there is a risk of splash to the face.
Pharmacology
5. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
A. Weight loss of 1 kg (2.2 lb) since yesterday.
B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
C. Blood pressure of 118/74 mmHg.
D. Reports of "ringing in the ears."
Answer: B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. ✓
*Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Tinnitus (D) is
an ototoxic effect but is not as immediately life-threatening.*
6. The nurse is administering insulin glargine (Lantus) at 2100. What is the priority action after
administering this medication?
A. Ensure the client eats a bedtime snack.
B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
C. Document the site of injection.
D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia throughout the night.
Answer: A. Ensure the client eats a bedtime snack. ✓
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no peak. The risk of nocturnal
,hypoglycemia is high. A bedtime snack is a proactive measure to prevent this. D is also
important, but A is the immediate action to prevent the problem.
7. A client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has an INR of 5.8. The nurse should anticipate an order
for which medication?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
D. Phytonadione
Answer: B. Vitamin K ✓ (Note: D, Phytonadione, is the generic name for Vitamin K. Both B and
D are correct, but Vitamin K is the more common name in practice.)
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose, indicated by a high INR. FFP (C) may
be used in active bleeding, but Vitamin K is the standard for reversal.
8. When teaching a client about taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), the nurse should instruct
the client to take the medication:
A. With food to avoid GI upset.
B. At bedtime to enhance absorption.
C. On an empty stomach, first thing in the morning.
D. With an antacid if heartburn occurs.
Answer: C. On an empty stomach, first thing in the morning. ✓
*Rationale: Absorption of levothyroxine is decreased by food, coffee, and other medications.
Taking it on an empty stomach 30-60 minutes before breakfast ensures optimal absorption.*
Adult Health / Medical-Surgical
9. A client with a new tracheostomy is anxious and writes, "I can't breathe!" What is the
nurse's first action?
A. Call the rapid response team.
B. Suction the tracheostomy tube.
C. Administer supplemental oxygen.
D. Provide reassurance to the client.
Answer: B. Suction the tracheostomy tube. ✓
Rationale: The most common cause of acute respiratory distress in a client with a new
tracheostomy is mucus plugging. The nurse's first action is to clear the airway via suctioning.
10. A client is 4 hours post-op following a total hip replacement. The nurse finds the leg on the
operative side shortened, adducted, and externally rotated. The nurse should suspect:
A. A normal finding after this surgery.
B. A wound infection.
, C. A prosthetic hip dislocation.
D. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Answer: C. A prosthetic hip dislocation. ✓
Rationale: The classic signs of hip dislocation are shortening, adduction, and external rotation of
the affected leg. This is a surgical emergency.
11. A client with heart failure is receiving IV dobutamine. The nurse should prioritize assessing
for which therapeutic effect?
A. Increased urine output.
B. Decreased heart rate.
C. Increased blood pressure.
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
Answer: A. Increased urine output. ✓
Rationale: Dobutamine is an inotropic agent that improves cardiac contractility and output.
Improved cardiac output leads to improved renal perfusion, which is evidenced by increased
urine output.
12. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage
system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What is the nurse's
best action?
A. This is a normal finding.
B. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
C. Check the system for an air leak.
D. Increase the suction pressure.
Answer: C. Check the system for an air leak. ✓
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system,
which can be at the connection sites or, in a worst-case scenario, from the client's pleural space.
The nurse must assess the system from the client to the drainage unit to locate the leak.
Maternal & Newborn Health
13. A client in the active phase of labor has 8 cm cervical dilation and +2 station. The fetal
heart rate (FHR) drops from 140 bpm to 90 bpm during a contraction and returns to 140 bpm
20 seconds after the contraction ends. The nurse should:
A. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
B. Change the client's position.
C. Administer oxygen via face mask.
D. Continue monitoring; this is a normal finding.
Answer: B. Change the client's position. ✓
Rationale: This pattern describes a late deceleration, which is associated with uteroplacental
FORM A, B AND C ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE
QUESTIONS BANK WITH CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS || 100% GUARANTEED PASS!! <BRAND
NEW VERSION>
NGN-Style RN Comprehensive Predictor Practice Questions & Answers
Fundamentals & Safety
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of falls. Which action is the priority when
developing the client's plan of care?
A. Keep the bed in a low position.
B. Place a "fall risk" sign on the door.
C. Ensure the call light is within reach.
D. Complete a fall risk assessment.
Answer: D. Complete a fall risk assessment. ✓
Rationale: The first step of the nursing process is assessment. A comprehensive fall risk
assessment (using a tool like the Morse Fall Scale) must be completed to identify specific risks
and guide the other interventions (A, B, and C).
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs.
B. Verify the blood product with another nurse.
C. Assess the client for a history of transfusion reactions.
D. Ensure informed consent is in the medical record.
Answer: D. Ensure informed consent is in the medical record. ✓
Rationale: While all are important, the legal and ethical requirement of informed consent must
be confirmed before the procedure can be initiated.
3. The nurse discovers a fire in a client's room. What is the sequence of actions the nurse
should take? (Place in order)
1. Activate the fire alarm.
2. Remove the client from the room.
, 3. Close the door to the room.
4. Use the appropriate fire extinguisher.
Answer: R - A - C - E (Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish) - 2, 1, 3, 4 ✓
Rationale: The priority is always to rescue the client. Then, alert others by activating the
alarm. Confining the fire by closing doors prevents spread. Extinguishing is the last
priority if the fire is small.
4. A client is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile. Which personal protective
equipment (PPE) should the nurse don upon entry?
A. Gown and Gloves
B. Gown, Gloves, and N95 Mask
C. Gloves Only
D. Gown, Gloves, and Face Shield
Answer: A. Gown and Gloves ✓
Rationale: C. diff is spread via spores in feces. Gown and gloves are required to prevent contact
with contaminated surfaces and the client's environment. A mask is not typically required unless
there is a risk of splash to the face.
Pharmacology
5. A client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which finding should the nurse
report to the provider immediately?
A. Weight loss of 1 kg (2.2 lb) since yesterday.
B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L.
C. Blood pressure of 118/74 mmHg.
D. Reports of "ringing in the ears."
Answer: B. Potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. ✓
*Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Tinnitus (D) is
an ototoxic effect but is not as immediately life-threatening.*
6. The nurse is administering insulin glargine (Lantus) at 2100. What is the priority action after
administering this medication?
A. Ensure the client eats a bedtime snack.
B. Check the client's blood glucose level.
C. Document the site of injection.
D. Assess for signs of hypoglycemia throughout the night.
Answer: A. Ensure the client eats a bedtime snack. ✓
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin with no peak. The risk of nocturnal
,hypoglycemia is high. A bedtime snack is a proactive measure to prevent this. D is also
important, but A is the immediate action to prevent the problem.
7. A client taking warfarin (Coumadin) has an INR of 5.8. The nurse should anticipate an order
for which medication?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP)
D. Phytonadione
Answer: B. Vitamin K ✓ (Note: D, Phytonadione, is the generic name for Vitamin K. Both B and
D are correct, but Vitamin K is the more common name in practice.)
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin overdose, indicated by a high INR. FFP (C) may
be used in active bleeding, but Vitamin K is the standard for reversal.
8. When teaching a client about taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), the nurse should instruct
the client to take the medication:
A. With food to avoid GI upset.
B. At bedtime to enhance absorption.
C. On an empty stomach, first thing in the morning.
D. With an antacid if heartburn occurs.
Answer: C. On an empty stomach, first thing in the morning. ✓
*Rationale: Absorption of levothyroxine is decreased by food, coffee, and other medications.
Taking it on an empty stomach 30-60 minutes before breakfast ensures optimal absorption.*
Adult Health / Medical-Surgical
9. A client with a new tracheostomy is anxious and writes, "I can't breathe!" What is the
nurse's first action?
A. Call the rapid response team.
B. Suction the tracheostomy tube.
C. Administer supplemental oxygen.
D. Provide reassurance to the client.
Answer: B. Suction the tracheostomy tube. ✓
Rationale: The most common cause of acute respiratory distress in a client with a new
tracheostomy is mucus plugging. The nurse's first action is to clear the airway via suctioning.
10. A client is 4 hours post-op following a total hip replacement. The nurse finds the leg on the
operative side shortened, adducted, and externally rotated. The nurse should suspect:
A. A normal finding after this surgery.
B. A wound infection.
, C. A prosthetic hip dislocation.
D. A deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Answer: C. A prosthetic hip dislocation. ✓
Rationale: The classic signs of hip dislocation are shortening, adduction, and external rotation of
the affected leg. This is a surgical emergency.
11. A client with heart failure is receiving IV dobutamine. The nurse should prioritize assessing
for which therapeutic effect?
A. Increased urine output.
B. Decreased heart rate.
C. Increased blood pressure.
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
Answer: A. Increased urine output. ✓
Rationale: Dobutamine is an inotropic agent that improves cardiac contractility and output.
Improved cardiac output leads to improved renal perfusion, which is evidenced by increased
urine output.
12. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage
system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What is the nurse's
best action?
A. This is a normal finding.
B. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
C. Check the system for an air leak.
D. Increase the suction pressure.
Answer: C. Check the system for an air leak. ✓
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system,
which can be at the connection sites or, in a worst-case scenario, from the client's pleural space.
The nurse must assess the system from the client to the drainage unit to locate the leak.
Maternal & Newborn Health
13. A client in the active phase of labor has 8 cm cervical dilation and +2 station. The fetal
heart rate (FHR) drops from 140 bpm to 90 bpm during a contraction and returns to 140 bpm
20 seconds after the contraction ends. The nurse should:
A. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
B. Change the client's position.
C. Administer oxygen via face mask.
D. Continue monitoring; this is a normal finding.
Answer: B. Change the client's position. ✓
Rationale: This pattern describes a late deceleration, which is associated with uteroplacental
