Barkley 3P Exam NEWEST 2026 |
GRADED A+ | 100% Verified & Detailed
Answers
The Barkley 3P Exam (2026 Edition) is the latest, fully verified, and updated test bank
designed for Nurse Practitioner (NP) students preparing for certification and advanced
practice readiness. This comprehensive exam resource includes 100% accurate and
graded A+ verified answers with detailed rationales, covering all three core domains —
Pathophysiology, Pharmacology, and Physical Assessment (3P). Updated to align with
the 2026 Barkley & Associates exam blueprint, it reflects real testing content and clinical
reasoning standards expected in NP board preparation.
You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans forward, you
can hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What does this type of
murmur most likely indicate?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation - ,,answer,,,..d. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo that best
heard at the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated w/ S2 and heard
when Pt sits up and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic
rumble & doesn't radiate. Best heard in apex when in left lateral position.
Aortic stenosis= loud, harsh murmur midsystole, radiated down the side
of neck and down apex. Mitral regurg= loud blowing murmur heard at apex
and is pansystolic.
,Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of
osteoporosis?
a. Bone deformity
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Fat embolism - ,,answer,,,..a. Bone deformity
most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, &
systemic; Low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads to
increased skeletal fragility & deformity. Osteoporosis usually not apparent
until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of vertebral fractures are painless. Fat
embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or trauma & not common in
osteoporosis.
A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat erectile
dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity
will take place two or more times per week.
b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal four hours
before sexual activity
c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual activity
as long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below 170/110 mm Hg
d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients, and may
be taken 30 minutes before sexual activity. - ,,answer,,,..a. Tadalafil
(Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will take
place two or more times per week.
Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow's Triad?
a. Hypercoagulability
b. Damage to endothelial cells
c. Sympathetic tone
d. Turbulent blood flow - ,,answer,,,..c. Sympathetic tone
,Virchow's triad is a method of describing the three main factors that lead
to a thrombosis -- sympathetic tone is not one of those and doesn't affect
blood clotting.
Hypercoagulability does lead to clotting, including malignancy, trauma,
sepsis, and thrombophilia. Endothelial cell damage is part of Virchow's
triad bc it causes blood to clot by promoting platelet adherence to the
wall of the vessels; vascular wall injury is the second aspect of Virchow's
triad. Lastly, turbulent blood flow is a constituent of circulatory stasis the
third component of the triad, which can be caused by atrial fibrillation,
venous obstruction, and ventricular dysfunction
A patient with kidney stones also presents with hypercalcemia and mental
confusion. The practitioner should evaluate the patient for which of the
following?
a. Cushing Syndrome
b. Conn's Syndrome
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Addison's disease - ,,answer,,,..c. Hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following statements is true regarding contraceptives?
a. Because oral contraceptives may cause harm to the fetus, they are
pregnancy category X drugs in pregnancy.
b. Oral contraceptives are linked to the promotion of ovarian,
endometrial, and breast cancer.
c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may
increase blood pressure.
d. Oral contraceptives may reduce the effects of theophylline,
benzodiazepines, and tricyclic antidepressants - ,,answer,,,..c. By
increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may increase
blood pressure.
, estrogen promotes aldosterone production= sodium retention & HTN.
Also believed stimulates hepatic production of angiotensinogen, affecting
renal system via elevated angiotensin & BP. OCP are category X, but
because serve no use, decrease incidence of ovarian and endometrial ca
and don't increase risk of breast ca. OCP containing progestin may
enhance effects of theophylline, benzos, and tricyclic antidepressants by
decreasing clearance.
Which of the following is a characteristic of Somogyi effect?
a. It is characterized by an early morning rise in blood glucose, with no
hypoglycemia during the night.
b. It is more common in type 2 diabetics
c. It presents with a combination of hypoglycemia followed by rebound
hyperglycemia.
d. It is more common in elderly patients with poorly controlled blood
sugars. - ,,answer,,,..c. It presents with a combination of hypoglycemia
followed by rebound hyperglycemia
- Nocturnal hypoglycemia stimulates hyperglycemia counter-regulation in
am. No hypoglycemia in night is Dawn phenomenon, more common in
T1DM, esp children w/ T1DM
Which of the following is a characteristic of B cell deficiency?
a. Inability to fight off cancer cells.
b. Inability to make antibodies
c. Increased incidence of granulomas
d. Increased incidence of anemia - ,,answer,,,..b. Inability to make
antibodies
When counseling a pregnant patient on drug use during pregnancy, it is
important that the nurse practitioner advises her:
GRADED A+ | 100% Verified & Detailed
Answers
The Barkley 3P Exam (2026 Edition) is the latest, fully verified, and updated test bank
designed for Nurse Practitioner (NP) students preparing for certification and advanced
practice readiness. This comprehensive exam resource includes 100% accurate and
graded A+ verified answers with detailed rationales, covering all three core domains —
Pathophysiology, Pharmacology, and Physical Assessment (3P). Updated to align with
the 2026 Barkley & Associates exam blueprint, it reflects real testing content and clinical
reasoning standards expected in NP board preparation.
You are auscultating Jon's chest. When he sits up and leans forward, you
can hear a high pitched, blowing murmur at S2. What does this type of
murmur most likely indicate?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Aortic Stenosis
c. Mitral regurgitation
d. Aortic regurgitation - ,,answer,,,..d. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurg is soft, high pitched, blowing diastolic decrescendo that best
heard at the 3rd left interspace at base. Murmur initiated w/ S2 and heard
when Pt sits up and leans forward. Mitral Stenosis= low pitched diastolic
rumble & doesn't radiate. Best heard in apex when in left lateral position.
Aortic stenosis= loud, harsh murmur midsystole, radiated down the side
of neck and down apex. Mitral regurg= loud blowing murmur heard at apex
and is pansystolic.
,Which of the following is the most common clinical manifestation of
osteoporosis?
a. Bone deformity
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Fat embolism - ,,answer,,,..a. Bone deformity
most common metabolic bone disease, is chronic, progressive, &
systemic; Low bone mass and deterioration of bone tissue, = leads to
increased skeletal fragility & deformity. Osteoporosis usually not apparent
until AFTER a fracture; 2/3 of vertebral fractures are painless. Fat
embolism from fat obstruction d/t injury or trauma & not common in
osteoporosis.
A male patient requests a phosphodiesterase inhibitor to treat erectile
dysfunction. Which of the following is appropriate?
a. Tadalafil (Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity
will take place two or more times per week.
b. Vardenafil (Levitra), 5 mg, may be taken with a high-fat meal four hours
before sexual activity
c. Sildenafil (Viagra), 50 mg, may be taken one hour before sexual activity
as long as the patient has a resting blood pressure below 170/110 mm Hg
d. Avanafil (Stendra) is recommended at 50 mg for all patients, and may
be taken 30 minutes before sexual activity. - ,,answer,,,..a. Tadalafil
(Cialis) may be used at a dose of 2.5 mg daily if sexual activity will take
place two or more times per week.
Which of the following is NOT part of Virchow's Triad?
a. Hypercoagulability
b. Damage to endothelial cells
c. Sympathetic tone
d. Turbulent blood flow - ,,answer,,,..c. Sympathetic tone
,Virchow's triad is a method of describing the three main factors that lead
to a thrombosis -- sympathetic tone is not one of those and doesn't affect
blood clotting.
Hypercoagulability does lead to clotting, including malignancy, trauma,
sepsis, and thrombophilia. Endothelial cell damage is part of Virchow's
triad bc it causes blood to clot by promoting platelet adherence to the
wall of the vessels; vascular wall injury is the second aspect of Virchow's
triad. Lastly, turbulent blood flow is a constituent of circulatory stasis the
third component of the triad, which can be caused by atrial fibrillation,
venous obstruction, and ventricular dysfunction
A patient with kidney stones also presents with hypercalcemia and mental
confusion. The practitioner should evaluate the patient for which of the
following?
a. Cushing Syndrome
b. Conn's Syndrome
c. Hyperparathyroidism
d. Addison's disease - ,,answer,,,..c. Hyperparathyroidism
Which of the following statements is true regarding contraceptives?
a. Because oral contraceptives may cause harm to the fetus, they are
pregnancy category X drugs in pregnancy.
b. Oral contraceptives are linked to the promotion of ovarian,
endometrial, and breast cancer.
c. By increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may
increase blood pressure.
d. Oral contraceptives may reduce the effects of theophylline,
benzodiazepines, and tricyclic antidepressants - ,,answer,,,..c. By
increasing angiotensin and aldosterone, oral contraceptives may increase
blood pressure.
, estrogen promotes aldosterone production= sodium retention & HTN.
Also believed stimulates hepatic production of angiotensinogen, affecting
renal system via elevated angiotensin & BP. OCP are category X, but
because serve no use, decrease incidence of ovarian and endometrial ca
and don't increase risk of breast ca. OCP containing progestin may
enhance effects of theophylline, benzos, and tricyclic antidepressants by
decreasing clearance.
Which of the following is a characteristic of Somogyi effect?
a. It is characterized by an early morning rise in blood glucose, with no
hypoglycemia during the night.
b. It is more common in type 2 diabetics
c. It presents with a combination of hypoglycemia followed by rebound
hyperglycemia.
d. It is more common in elderly patients with poorly controlled blood
sugars. - ,,answer,,,..c. It presents with a combination of hypoglycemia
followed by rebound hyperglycemia
- Nocturnal hypoglycemia stimulates hyperglycemia counter-regulation in
am. No hypoglycemia in night is Dawn phenomenon, more common in
T1DM, esp children w/ T1DM
Which of the following is a characteristic of B cell deficiency?
a. Inability to fight off cancer cells.
b. Inability to make antibodies
c. Increased incidence of granulomas
d. Increased incidence of anemia - ,,answer,,,..b. Inability to make
antibodies
When counseling a pregnant patient on drug use during pregnancy, it is
important that the nurse practitioner advises her:
