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BSN 246 HESI Health Assessment Exam V1 – Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Nightingale

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BSN 246 HESI Health Assessment Exam V1 – Questions & Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Solutions) – Nightingale

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Subido en
13 de noviembre de 2025
Número de páginas
94
Escrito en
2025/2026
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BSN 246 HESI Health Assessment Exam
V1 – Questions & Answers | Grade A |
100% Correct (Verified Solutions) –
Nightingale

1. During an interview, the nurse states, "You mentioned the shortness of breath began about
2 weeks ago. Tell me more about what that feels like." This is an example of which
communication technique?
A) Reflection
B) Facilitation
C) Direct Question
D) Open-ended Question

2. When preparing to perform a physical examination, the first action the nurse should take is:
A) Wash hands with soap and water.
B) Check the room for necessary equipment and cleanliness.
C) Explain the procedure to the patient.
D) Don non-sterile gloves.

3. The primary purpose of a genogram is to:
A) Document a patient's surgical history.
B) Illustrate family relationships and health patterns.
C) Track a patient's growth and development.
D) List a patient's current medications.

4. A patient describes their pain as a 7 on a scale of 0 to 10. This is considered what type of
data?
A) Objective
B) Subjective
C) Secondary
D) Tertiary

,5. When inspecting a patient's skin, the nurse notes a bluish discoloration around the lips.
This should be documented as:
A) Pallor
B) Erythema
C) Cyanosis
D) Jaundice

6. To assess for pitting edema, the nurse presses firmly against the patient's ankle for 5
seconds. A deep pit that lasts for over 20 seconds is graded as:
A) 1+
B) 2+
C) 3+
D) 4+

7. The "Snellen chart" is used to assess which cranial nerve?
A) CN I (Olfactory)
B) CN II (Optic)
C) CN III (Oculomotor)
D) CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)

8. When testing extraocular movements, the nurse asks the patient to follow her finger
through the six cardinal positions of gaze. This assesses cranial nerves:
A) II, III, IV
B) III, IV, VI
C) II, IV, VI
D) III, V, VI

9. A patient has a deviated trachea. This is a significant finding that may indicate:
A) Pneumonia
B) Tension pneumothorax
C) Chronic bronchitis
D) Asthma

10. The nurse hears low-pitched, rumbling sounds during expiration over the lung bases. To
better hear these sounds, the nurse should:
A) Use the bell of the stethoscope.
B) Ask the patient to lean forward and breathe deeply.
C) Have the patient hold their breath.
D) Listen over the trachea.

,11. Bronchial breath sounds are normally heard over:
A) The peripheral lung fields
B) The trachea and larynx
C) The major bronchi
D) The lung bases

12. When percussing the posterior chest wall, the sound expected over normal lung tissue is:
A) Tympany
B) Dullness
C) Flatness
D) Resonance

13. The point of maximal impulse (PMI) is typically located at the:
A) Right midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space
B) Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space
C) Left midclavicular line, 2nd intercostal space
D) Right midclavicular line, 2nd intercostal space

14. The S1 heart sound corresponds to:
A) Aortic and pulmonic valve closure
B) Closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid and mitral)
C) Atrial contraction
D) Ventricular filling

15. A bruit heard over the carotid artery indicates:
A) Turbulent blood flow, suggesting stenosis
B) Increased intracranial pressure
C) A normal finding in older adults
D) Inflammation of the lymph nodes

16. When assessing the abdomen, the correct sequence of assessment techniques is:
A) Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation, Inspection
B) Inspection, Palpation, Auscultation, Percussion
C) Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion, Palpation
D) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion

17. Hyperactive bowel sounds are characterized as:
A) Less than 5 sounds per minute
B) More than 30 sounds per minute

, C) The absence of sound for 3 minutes
D) High-pitched tinkling sounds

18. Light palpation of the abdomen is used to assess for:
A) Liver size
B) Tenderness, muscle guarding, and superficial masses
C) Splenic enlargement
D) Aortic pulsation

19. A positive Murphy's sign is associated with:
A) Appendicitis
B) Cholecystitis
C) Pancreatitis
D) Peritonitis

20. The Glasgow Coma Scale assesses which three parameters?
A) Pulse, Respiration, Blood Pressure
B) Eye opening, Verbal response, Motor response
C) Orientation, Memory, Calculation
D) Cranial nerves, Reflexes, Sensation

21. To test stereognosis, the nurse would ask the patient to:
A) Identify a common object placed in their hand with their eyes closed.
B) Trace a number on their palm.
C) Distinguish between sharp and dull sensations.
D) Close their eyes and touch their nose.

22. The Babinski reflex in an adult is considered a normal finding.
A) True
B) False

23. A patient's inability to heel-to-toe walk (tandem walking) is a test of:
A) Cerebellar function
B) Corticospinal tract function
C) Sensory perception
D) Vibratory sense

24. The most reliable indicator of a patient's pain is:
A) The nurse's observation of the patient's behavior.
B) The patient's vital signs.
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