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CAHIMS Exam and Practice Test 2025 | Certified
Associate in Healthcare Information and Management
Systems Study Guide, Questions & Answers
Prepare for the CAHIMS Exam 2025 (Certified Associate in Healthcare Information and
Management Systems) with our comprehensive practice exam and study guide. Includes real
CAHIMS-style questions, detailed rationales, and updated HIMSS content covering
healthcare technology, data management, IT systems, and regulatory compliance. Perfect for
healthcare IT professionals aiming to earn their CAHIMS certification and advance their
career in health informatics and systems management.
CAHIMS Exam 2025,
CAHIMS practice test,
Certified Associate in Healthcare Information and Management Systems,
HIMSS CAHIMS exam prep,
What type of security information is time of day?
A. Permission
B. Role
C. Label
D. Context - ANSWER-D. Time of day is part of the context of the transaction.
Which of the following is not a principle of privacy?
A. The purpose for data collection should be known, limited, and stated.
B. An individual (patient) should have the right to see the data that has beencollected and correct it if it
is found to be inaccurate.
,2|Page
C. The data should be controlled against any inappropriate use or access.
D. The data must be digitally signed. - ANSWER-D. Digital signatures are not a principle of privacy. Digital
signatures are used to provide proof of provenance, or proof of action. They might be used to sign a
privacy consent.
From a regulatory perspective, what are the differences between what a BA is required to adhere to
when it comes to the HIPAA rules and what a CE must adhere to?
A. There are no differences.
B. The BA is required to adhere to the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach
Notification Rules, but the CE is not required to adhere to any of them.
C. The BA is required to adhere to the use and disclosure provisions of the HIPAA Privacy Rule and the
full Security and Breach Notification Rules, and the CE is required to adhere to the Privacy, Security, and
Breach Notification Rules and the other HIPAA Administrative Simplification provisions.
D. The BA is required to adhere to the full Security and Breach Notification Rules, and the CE is required
to adhere to the Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules and the other HIPAA Administrative
Simplification provisions. - ANSWER-C. The business associate is required to adhere to the use and
disclosure provisions of the HIPAA Privacy Rule and the complete Security and Breach Notification Rules,
and the covered entity is required to adhere to the Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules and
the other HIPAA Administrative Simplification provisions.
What standard can be used to harmonize different identity and authentication systems?
A. WS-Trust
B. WAP
C. Wi-Fi
D. WEP - ANSWER-A. WS-Trust is the standard used to harmonize different identity and authentication
systems.
What authentication standard is best paired with FHIR®?
,3|Page
A. SOAP
B. kAuth
C. OAuth
D. Password - ANSWER-C. OAuth is considered the best security protocol for use with HL7 FHIR® along
with HTTPS. Note that client certificates and SAML are also used.
What is it called when one system asks another to enforce a policy fragment?
A. Liability
B. Obligation
C. Commitment
D. Permission - ANSWER-B. When a sending system needs a receiving system to enforce a policy
fragment, and it knows that the receiving system can enforce this policy fragment, then it would convey
the policy fragment using an obligation. An obligation might be explicit or implied.
What is the critical fact about healthcare data that separates it from other data?
A. It is large.
B. It is detailed.
C. It can't be changed or revoked.
D. There is nothing special about healthcare data. - ANSWER-C. Healthcare data can't be changed or
revoked, thus it is extra important to protect against inappropriate disclosure. Healthcare data also are
often used to make life-critical or lifesaving decisions.
What enforcement action can OCR take if a CE violates provisions of HIPAA's Administrative
Simplification provisions?
A. OCR has no enforcement authority.
B. OCR may levy up to $50,000 for any level of violation with a maximum
of $1.5 million per calendar year for the same type of violation.
, 4|Page
C. OCR may levy up to $25,000 for any level of violation with a maximum of $500,000 per calendar year
for the same type of violation.
D. The penalty depends on the severity of the disclosure. - ANSWER-B. OCR may levy up to $50,000 for
any level of violation with a maximum of $1.5 million per calendar year for the same type of violation.
What are the privacy rights afforded patients pursuant to the HIPAA Privacy
Rule (45 CFR Part 164, Subpart E)?
A. The maximum rights of quality, efficiency, and effectiveness.
B. Patients must be informed of disclosed PHI other than for treatment, payment, and healthcare
operations.
C. The patient has the right to request a copy of their legal medical record.
D. The patient has the right to register a complaint with the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Office of the Inspector General. - ANSWER-B. Patients must be informed of
disclosed PHI other than for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations.
A state law that is more stringent than the HIPAA Privacy Rule preempts HIPAA. What does stringent
mean?
A. Stringent is defined as providing greater protection of an individual's PHI or providing an individual
greater access to their PHI.
B. Stringent is defined as a state law that is in conflict with HIPAA.
C. Stringent is defined as covering more serious disclosures.
D. Stringent means allowing more enforcement. - ANSWER-A. Stringent is defined as providing greater
protection of an individual's PHI or providing an individual greater access to their PHI.
What are the document creation and retention requirements for CEs?
A. CEs are required to retain medical records for a minimum of six years.
B. CEs are required to create and retain for a minimum of six years all disclosures, complaints,
mitigations, compliance reviews, and EHR audit reports.
C. All document retention requirements are for one year only.
CAHIMS Exam and Practice Test 2025 | Certified
Associate in Healthcare Information and Management
Systems Study Guide, Questions & Answers
Prepare for the CAHIMS Exam 2025 (Certified Associate in Healthcare Information and
Management Systems) with our comprehensive practice exam and study guide. Includes real
CAHIMS-style questions, detailed rationales, and updated HIMSS content covering
healthcare technology, data management, IT systems, and regulatory compliance. Perfect for
healthcare IT professionals aiming to earn their CAHIMS certification and advance their
career in health informatics and systems management.
CAHIMS Exam 2025,
CAHIMS practice test,
Certified Associate in Healthcare Information and Management Systems,
HIMSS CAHIMS exam prep,
What type of security information is time of day?
A. Permission
B. Role
C. Label
D. Context - ANSWER-D. Time of day is part of the context of the transaction.
Which of the following is not a principle of privacy?
A. The purpose for data collection should be known, limited, and stated.
B. An individual (patient) should have the right to see the data that has beencollected and correct it if it
is found to be inaccurate.
,2|Page
C. The data should be controlled against any inappropriate use or access.
D. The data must be digitally signed. - ANSWER-D. Digital signatures are not a principle of privacy. Digital
signatures are used to provide proof of provenance, or proof of action. They might be used to sign a
privacy consent.
From a regulatory perspective, what are the differences between what a BA is required to adhere to
when it comes to the HIPAA rules and what a CE must adhere to?
A. There are no differences.
B. The BA is required to adhere to the HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach
Notification Rules, but the CE is not required to adhere to any of them.
C. The BA is required to adhere to the use and disclosure provisions of the HIPAA Privacy Rule and the
full Security and Breach Notification Rules, and the CE is required to adhere to the Privacy, Security, and
Breach Notification Rules and the other HIPAA Administrative Simplification provisions.
D. The BA is required to adhere to the full Security and Breach Notification Rules, and the CE is required
to adhere to the Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules and the other HIPAA Administrative
Simplification provisions. - ANSWER-C. The business associate is required to adhere to the use and
disclosure provisions of the HIPAA Privacy Rule and the complete Security and Breach Notification Rules,
and the covered entity is required to adhere to the Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules and
the other HIPAA Administrative Simplification provisions.
What standard can be used to harmonize different identity and authentication systems?
A. WS-Trust
B. WAP
C. Wi-Fi
D. WEP - ANSWER-A. WS-Trust is the standard used to harmonize different identity and authentication
systems.
What authentication standard is best paired with FHIR®?
,3|Page
A. SOAP
B. kAuth
C. OAuth
D. Password - ANSWER-C. OAuth is considered the best security protocol for use with HL7 FHIR® along
with HTTPS. Note that client certificates and SAML are also used.
What is it called when one system asks another to enforce a policy fragment?
A. Liability
B. Obligation
C. Commitment
D. Permission - ANSWER-B. When a sending system needs a receiving system to enforce a policy
fragment, and it knows that the receiving system can enforce this policy fragment, then it would convey
the policy fragment using an obligation. An obligation might be explicit or implied.
What is the critical fact about healthcare data that separates it from other data?
A. It is large.
B. It is detailed.
C. It can't be changed or revoked.
D. There is nothing special about healthcare data. - ANSWER-C. Healthcare data can't be changed or
revoked, thus it is extra important to protect against inappropriate disclosure. Healthcare data also are
often used to make life-critical or lifesaving decisions.
What enforcement action can OCR take if a CE violates provisions of HIPAA's Administrative
Simplification provisions?
A. OCR has no enforcement authority.
B. OCR may levy up to $50,000 for any level of violation with a maximum
of $1.5 million per calendar year for the same type of violation.
, 4|Page
C. OCR may levy up to $25,000 for any level of violation with a maximum of $500,000 per calendar year
for the same type of violation.
D. The penalty depends on the severity of the disclosure. - ANSWER-B. OCR may levy up to $50,000 for
any level of violation with a maximum of $1.5 million per calendar year for the same type of violation.
What are the privacy rights afforded patients pursuant to the HIPAA Privacy
Rule (45 CFR Part 164, Subpart E)?
A. The maximum rights of quality, efficiency, and effectiveness.
B. Patients must be informed of disclosed PHI other than for treatment, payment, and healthcare
operations.
C. The patient has the right to request a copy of their legal medical record.
D. The patient has the right to register a complaint with the U.S. Department of
Health and Human Services, Office of the Inspector General. - ANSWER-B. Patients must be informed of
disclosed PHI other than for treatment, payment, and healthcare operations.
A state law that is more stringent than the HIPAA Privacy Rule preempts HIPAA. What does stringent
mean?
A. Stringent is defined as providing greater protection of an individual's PHI or providing an individual
greater access to their PHI.
B. Stringent is defined as a state law that is in conflict with HIPAA.
C. Stringent is defined as covering more serious disclosures.
D. Stringent means allowing more enforcement. - ANSWER-A. Stringent is defined as providing greater
protection of an individual's PHI or providing an individual greater access to their PHI.
What are the document creation and retention requirements for CEs?
A. CEs are required to retain medical records for a minimum of six years.
B. CEs are required to create and retain for a minimum of six years all disclosures, complaints,
mitigations, compliance reviews, and EHR audit reports.
C. All document retention requirements are for one year only.
