PEAT 4 Exam 2026– Latest Version | Actual Exam
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1) A patient is performing a Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation exercise
session. The physical therapist should terminate low-level activity if which of
the following changes occurs?
1. The diastolic blood pressure increases to 120 mm Hg.
2. The respiratory rate increases to 20 breaths per minute.
3. The systolic blood pressure increases by 20 mm Hg.
4. The heart rate increases by 20 bpm.
1
During Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation, vital sign parameters with activity
that warrant termination are: diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg or greater,
systolic blood pressure above 210 mm Hg or an increase greater than 20 mm Hg
from resting, and a heart rate that increases beyond 20 bpm above resting. The
normal resting respiratory rate can range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute in
adults, so an increase to 20 breaths per minute with low-level activity would not
be a reason to terminate the activity.
1) A patient is being evaluated for possible carpal tunnel syndrome, and a nerve
conduction velocity test is performed. Which of the following findings would
MOST strongly support the diagnosis?
1. Decreased latency at the elbow.
2. Decreased latency at the carpal tunnel.
3. Increased latency at the carpal tunnel.
4. Increased latency at the forearm.
Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal.
,Latency is typically increased, not decreased, across the carpal tunnel
compression site. Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression
is usually normal.
1) When examining a patient with a history of alcohol abuse, a physical
therapist notes that the patient demonstrates fine resting tremors and
hyperactive reflexes. The patient reports frequent right upper quadrant pain.
Which of the following additional signs is MOST likely?
1. Jaundice
2. Hyperhidrosis
3. Hypotension
4. Nocturnal cough
With a history of alcohol abuse and the presence of fine resting tremors and right
upper quadrant pain, the patient is presenting a history and signs and symptoms
consistent with liver disease. Jaundice is a skin change associated with disease of
the hepatic system. Hyperhidrosis can be present with endocrine disorders but is
not associated with liver disease. Hypotension is not listed as a sign of liver
disorders. A nocturnal cough can be associated with rheumatic fever, but is not
characteristic of liver disease.
1) Which of the following examination findings would be expected in a patient
who also had sustained ankle clonus?
1. An upgoing great toe when the sole of the foot is stroked
2. Weakness of ankle plantar flexors with one-repetition strength testing
3. Absence of sensation to sharp/dull testing over the posterior lower leg
4. Hyporeflexia when deep tendon reflexes are elicited in the lower leg
The C7 nerve root supplies sensation in the dorsal middle finger.
1) Which of the following sensory testing locations corresponds to the C7 nerve
root?
1. Volar aspect of the little finger (5th digit)
,2. Dorsal aspect of the middle finger (3rd digit)
3. Lateral aspect of the upper arm
4. Medial aspect of the upper arm
Sustained ankle clonus indicates a central nervous system dysfunction, as does
the presence of a Babinski sign (that is, an upgoing great toe with stroking of the
plantar foot). The other options are associated with lower motor neuron
problems.
1) A 3-month-old infant has poor midline head control. During evaluation, the
physical therapist notes facial asymmetry and observes that the infant has
limitation of cervical rotation to the left and cervical lateral flexion to the right.
A radiology report indicates premature fusion of the infant's cranial sutures. The
infant MOST likely has:
1. right congenital muscular torticollis.
2. left congenital muscular torticollis.
3. right cervical facet hypomobility.
4. left cervical facet hypomobility.
The infant exhibits signs of torticollis affecting the right sternocleidomastoid
muscle. Torticollis is named for the side of the limited lateral flexion. Asymmetry
and premature closure of sutures (plagiocephaly) are not typically seen with
cervical facet hypomobility in infants.
1) A patient had a split-thickness skin graft for a partial-thickness burn injury to
the upper extremity. The surgeon has requested range-of-motion exercises for
the patient. Currently, the patient is able to actively move the upper extremity
through one-third of the range of motion for shoulder flexion. Based on this
finding, what is the MOST appropriate action for the physical therapist to take
at this time?
1. Defer any range-of-motion exercises until the patient is able to participate
more actively.
2. Begin active assistive range-of-motion exercises.
, 3. Begin bed mobility training to facilitate increased use of the upper extremity
4. Continue with active range-of-motion exercises.
Deferring any range-of-motion exercises is not a practical choice, as contracture
will develop postoperatively. Because this patient cannot achieve full range of
motion by himself, active assistive range of motion is indicated to prevent
contracture postoperatively. Although bed mobility training is a creative way to
possibly increase upper extremity range of motion, given the acuity of the
patient's surgical wound, the patient would need more range of motion for this
intervention to be more beneficial. Continuing with only active range of motion
would not facilitate adequate increases in range of motion and would not prevent
contractures.
1) Which of the following modalities BEST addresses the cause of calcific
tendinitis in the bicipital tendon?
1. Sensory level interferential current at 80 Hz to 100 Hz
2. Iontophoresis with acetic acid at 60 mA/minute
3. High-volt pulsed electrical stimulation at 200 pps
4. Diathermy with a parallel treatment set-up
Sensory level interferential current at 80 to 100 Hz does not address the problem
itself but may address any related pain. Iontophoresis with acetic acid can address
the cause of calcific tendinitis, not just the symptoms. High-volt pulsed electrical
stimulation at 200 pps does not address the problem itself but may address any
related pain. Diathermy with a parallel treatment set-up is not the best choice, as
deep heat will not address the pathology.
1) To minimize skin irritation during functional electrical nerve stimulation, a
physical therapist should use:
1. lower intensity, larger interelectrode distance, and larger electrodes.
2. lower intensity, larger interelectrode distance, and smaller electrodes.
3. higher intensity, smaller interelectrode distance, and smaller electrodes.
lower intensity, smaller interelectrode distance, and larger electrodes
Questions with Correct Answers & Detailed
Explanations | Verified, Updated, and Graded A+
for Guaranteed Success
1) A patient is performing a Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation exercise
session. The physical therapist should terminate low-level activity if which of
the following changes occurs?
1. The diastolic blood pressure increases to 120 mm Hg.
2. The respiratory rate increases to 20 breaths per minute.
3. The systolic blood pressure increases by 20 mm Hg.
4. The heart rate increases by 20 bpm.
1
During Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation, vital sign parameters with activity
that warrant termination are: diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg or greater,
systolic blood pressure above 210 mm Hg or an increase greater than 20 mm Hg
from resting, and a heart rate that increases beyond 20 bpm above resting. The
normal resting respiratory rate can range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute in
adults, so an increase to 20 breaths per minute with low-level activity would not
be a reason to terminate the activity.
1) A patient is being evaluated for possible carpal tunnel syndrome, and a nerve
conduction velocity test is performed. Which of the following findings would
MOST strongly support the diagnosis?
1. Decreased latency at the elbow.
2. Decreased latency at the carpal tunnel.
3. Increased latency at the carpal tunnel.
4. Increased latency at the forearm.
Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal.
,Latency is typically increased, not decreased, across the carpal tunnel
compression site. Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression
is usually normal.
1) When examining a patient with a history of alcohol abuse, a physical
therapist notes that the patient demonstrates fine resting tremors and
hyperactive reflexes. The patient reports frequent right upper quadrant pain.
Which of the following additional signs is MOST likely?
1. Jaundice
2. Hyperhidrosis
3. Hypotension
4. Nocturnal cough
With a history of alcohol abuse and the presence of fine resting tremors and right
upper quadrant pain, the patient is presenting a history and signs and symptoms
consistent with liver disease. Jaundice is a skin change associated with disease of
the hepatic system. Hyperhidrosis can be present with endocrine disorders but is
not associated with liver disease. Hypotension is not listed as a sign of liver
disorders. A nocturnal cough can be associated with rheumatic fever, but is not
characteristic of liver disease.
1) Which of the following examination findings would be expected in a patient
who also had sustained ankle clonus?
1. An upgoing great toe when the sole of the foot is stroked
2. Weakness of ankle plantar flexors with one-repetition strength testing
3. Absence of sensation to sharp/dull testing over the posterior lower leg
4. Hyporeflexia when deep tendon reflexes are elicited in the lower leg
The C7 nerve root supplies sensation in the dorsal middle finger.
1) Which of the following sensory testing locations corresponds to the C7 nerve
root?
1. Volar aspect of the little finger (5th digit)
,2. Dorsal aspect of the middle finger (3rd digit)
3. Lateral aspect of the upper arm
4. Medial aspect of the upper arm
Sustained ankle clonus indicates a central nervous system dysfunction, as does
the presence of a Babinski sign (that is, an upgoing great toe with stroking of the
plantar foot). The other options are associated with lower motor neuron
problems.
1) A 3-month-old infant has poor midline head control. During evaluation, the
physical therapist notes facial asymmetry and observes that the infant has
limitation of cervical rotation to the left and cervical lateral flexion to the right.
A radiology report indicates premature fusion of the infant's cranial sutures. The
infant MOST likely has:
1. right congenital muscular torticollis.
2. left congenital muscular torticollis.
3. right cervical facet hypomobility.
4. left cervical facet hypomobility.
The infant exhibits signs of torticollis affecting the right sternocleidomastoid
muscle. Torticollis is named for the side of the limited lateral flexion. Asymmetry
and premature closure of sutures (plagiocephaly) are not typically seen with
cervical facet hypomobility in infants.
1) A patient had a split-thickness skin graft for a partial-thickness burn injury to
the upper extremity. The surgeon has requested range-of-motion exercises for
the patient. Currently, the patient is able to actively move the upper extremity
through one-third of the range of motion for shoulder flexion. Based on this
finding, what is the MOST appropriate action for the physical therapist to take
at this time?
1. Defer any range-of-motion exercises until the patient is able to participate
more actively.
2. Begin active assistive range-of-motion exercises.
, 3. Begin bed mobility training to facilitate increased use of the upper extremity
4. Continue with active range-of-motion exercises.
Deferring any range-of-motion exercises is not a practical choice, as contracture
will develop postoperatively. Because this patient cannot achieve full range of
motion by himself, active assistive range of motion is indicated to prevent
contracture postoperatively. Although bed mobility training is a creative way to
possibly increase upper extremity range of motion, given the acuity of the
patient's surgical wound, the patient would need more range of motion for this
intervention to be more beneficial. Continuing with only active range of motion
would not facilitate adequate increases in range of motion and would not prevent
contractures.
1) Which of the following modalities BEST addresses the cause of calcific
tendinitis in the bicipital tendon?
1. Sensory level interferential current at 80 Hz to 100 Hz
2. Iontophoresis with acetic acid at 60 mA/minute
3. High-volt pulsed electrical stimulation at 200 pps
4. Diathermy with a parallel treatment set-up
Sensory level interferential current at 80 to 100 Hz does not address the problem
itself but may address any related pain. Iontophoresis with acetic acid can address
the cause of calcific tendinitis, not just the symptoms. High-volt pulsed electrical
stimulation at 200 pps does not address the problem itself but may address any
related pain. Diathermy with a parallel treatment set-up is not the best choice, as
deep heat will not address the pathology.
1) To minimize skin irritation during functional electrical nerve stimulation, a
physical therapist should use:
1. lower intensity, larger interelectrode distance, and larger electrodes.
2. lower intensity, larger interelectrode distance, and smaller electrodes.
3. higher intensity, smaller interelectrode distance, and smaller electrodes.
lower intensity, smaller interelectrode distance, and larger electrodes
