MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING:
CONCEPTS FOR INTERPROFESSIONAL
COLLABORATIVE CARE 9TH EDITION
TEST BANK STUDY GUIDE 2026
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100%
GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>
1. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix).
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Serum Sodium
C. Serum Calcium
D. Serum Magnesium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting, leading to
hypokalemia, which can precipitate dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
2. When teaching a patient about a new prescription for Metoprolol, the nurse
should include which key instruction?
A. "Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position."
B. "Take this medication only when you feel your heart racing."
C. "Avoid all green, leafy vegetables while on this drug."
D. "A rapid heart rate is an expected side effect."
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause hypotension and
bradycardia. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect, so patients should
be taught to change positions slowly.
3. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. The
patient is conscious and alert. What is the nurse's most appropriate initial
action?
A. Administer 1 mg of Glucagon intramuscularly.
,B. Provide 4-6 oz of fruit juice or 3-4 glucose tablets.
C. Have the patient ambulate to increase metabolism.
D. Administer the patient's scheduled rapid-acting insulin.
*Rationale: For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, the first-line treatment is
15-20 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as juice or glucose tablets.*
4. The nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism.
Which finding is most characteristic of this condition?
A. Bradycardia
B. Productive cough with yellow sputum
C. Pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea
D. Barrel-shaped chest
Rationale: Sudden pleuritic chest pain (worsened by inspiration) and acute
dyspnea are classic manifestations of a pulmonary embolism.
5. Four hours post-op following a total abdominal hysterectomy, a patient's
urinary output is 20 mL/hr. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Place a warm pack on the patient's suprapubic area.
B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
C. Notify the surgeon regarding potential oliguria.
D. Document the finding and reassess in 4 hours.
*Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign
of hypovolemia or acute kidney injury. This requires immediate notification of the
provider as it is a potential surgical complication.*
6. A patient with Crohn's disease is admitted with a possible bowel
obstruction. The nurse should expect to assess for which primary symptom?
A. Diarrhea
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Abdominal pain and distension
D. Clay-colored stools
Rationale: Abdominal pain and distension are hallmark signs of a mechanical
bowel obstruction.
7. When preparing a patient for a colonoscopy, which patient statement
indicates effective teaching about the bowel preparation?
, A. "I should expect to have formed, brown stools at the time of the procedure."
B. "I can have a light breakfast the morning of the procedure."
C. "My stools should be clear and liquid by the time the procedure starts."
D. "I only need to take the laxative, not restrict my diet."
Rationale: The goal of bowel prep is to clear the colon of all stool to ensure
optimal visualization. Stool should be clear and liquid.
8. A patient with cirrhosis has significant ascites. The nurse should monitor
for which respiratory complication?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pulmonary Edema
C. Pleural Effusion
D. Impaired Gas Exchange related to diaphragmatic pressure
Rationale: Ascites increases intra-abdominal pressure, which pushes up on the
diaphragm, limiting lung expansion and leading to impaired gas exchange.
9. The nurse is assessing a patient with a new head injury. Which sign is most
indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A. Headache
B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations (Cushing's Triad)
C. Tachycardia
D. Pinpoint pupils
Rationale: Cushing's Triad (bradycardia, hypertension, widened pulse pressure,
and irregular respirations) is a late and ominous sign of significantly increased
ICP.
10. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen via nasal cannula. The nurse recognizes that the goal of oxygen
therapy in this population is to maintain the SpO2 between:
A. 88-92%
B. 94-98%
C. 75-80%
D. 100%
*Rationale: Patients with chronic CO2 retention (e.g., in COPD) rely on hypoxic
CONCEPTS FOR INTERPROFESSIONAL
COLLABORATIVE CARE 9TH EDITION
TEST BANK STUDY GUIDE 2026
COMPLETE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS || 100%
GUARANTEED PASS <RECENT VERSION>
1. A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed Furosemide (Lasix).
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Serum Sodium
C. Serum Calcium
D. Serum Magnesium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting, leading to
hypokalemia, which can precipitate dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias.
2. When teaching a patient about a new prescription for Metoprolol, the nurse
should include which key instruction?
A. "Rise slowly from a sitting or lying position."
B. "Take this medication only when you feel your heart racing."
C. "Avoid all green, leafy vegetables while on this drug."
D. "A rapid heart rate is an expected side effect."
Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can cause hypotension and
bradycardia. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect, so patients should
be taught to change positions slowly.
3. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes has a blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL. The
patient is conscious and alert. What is the nurse's most appropriate initial
action?
A. Administer 1 mg of Glucagon intramuscularly.
,B. Provide 4-6 oz of fruit juice or 3-4 glucose tablets.
C. Have the patient ambulate to increase metabolism.
D. Administer the patient's scheduled rapid-acting insulin.
*Rationale: For a conscious patient with hypoglycemia, the first-line treatment is
15-20 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as juice or glucose tablets.*
4. The nurse is caring for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism.
Which finding is most characteristic of this condition?
A. Bradycardia
B. Productive cough with yellow sputum
C. Pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea
D. Barrel-shaped chest
Rationale: Sudden pleuritic chest pain (worsened by inspiration) and acute
dyspnea are classic manifestations of a pulmonary embolism.
5. Four hours post-op following a total abdominal hysterectomy, a patient's
urinary output is 20 mL/hr. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Place a warm pack on the patient's suprapubic area.
B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
C. Notify the surgeon regarding potential oliguria.
D. Document the finding and reassess in 4 hours.
*Rationale: Urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign
of hypovolemia or acute kidney injury. This requires immediate notification of the
provider as it is a potential surgical complication.*
6. A patient with Crohn's disease is admitted with a possible bowel
obstruction. The nurse should expect to assess for which primary symptom?
A. Diarrhea
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Abdominal pain and distension
D. Clay-colored stools
Rationale: Abdominal pain and distension are hallmark signs of a mechanical
bowel obstruction.
7. When preparing a patient for a colonoscopy, which patient statement
indicates effective teaching about the bowel preparation?
, A. "I should expect to have formed, brown stools at the time of the procedure."
B. "I can have a light breakfast the morning of the procedure."
C. "My stools should be clear and liquid by the time the procedure starts."
D. "I only need to take the laxative, not restrict my diet."
Rationale: The goal of bowel prep is to clear the colon of all stool to ensure
optimal visualization. Stool should be clear and liquid.
8. A patient with cirrhosis has significant ascites. The nurse should monitor
for which respiratory complication?
A. Atelectasis
B. Pulmonary Edema
C. Pleural Effusion
D. Impaired Gas Exchange related to diaphragmatic pressure
Rationale: Ascites increases intra-abdominal pressure, which pushes up on the
diaphragm, limiting lung expansion and leading to impaired gas exchange.
9. The nurse is assessing a patient with a new head injury. Which sign is most
indicative of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A. Headache
B. Bradycardia, hypertension, and irregular respirations (Cushing's Triad)
C. Tachycardia
D. Pinpoint pupils
Rationale: Cushing's Triad (bradycardia, hypertension, widened pulse pressure,
and irregular respirations) is a late and ominous sign of significantly increased
ICP.
10. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving
oxygen via nasal cannula. The nurse recognizes that the goal of oxygen
therapy in this population is to maintain the SpO2 between:
A. 88-92%
B. 94-98%
C. 75-80%
D. 100%
*Rationale: Patients with chronic CO2 retention (e.g., in COPD) rely on hypoxic
