ESTUDYR
PIL , HOME OFFICE LICENSEE TRAINING, BIOLOGY AND HUSBANDRY,
HOC PIL A - THE LAW & LAB ANIMALS, PIL A, B LEGISLATION ,
PERSONAL LICENSE COURSE EXAM
What is the primary purpose of the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act (ASPA)?
A. To promote animal entertainment industries
B. To define permissible research funding sources
C. ✔ To define legitimate purposes for animal use, impose limits on pain and suffering,
ensure inspection, humane husbandry, and public accountability.
D. To ban all animal research
Rationale: ASPA sets lawful purposes, welfare limits, inspection and accountability for animal
use.
What is the Animal Procedures Committee / Animal Sentience Committee (ASC) under ASPA?
A. A licensing office that issues PPLs
B. A local university committee
C. ✔ An independent, non-departmental public body advising the Home Office on ASPA
matters (no executive powers).
D. A private veterinary association
Rationale: The ASC provides impartial advice to ministers and cannot grant licences.
Schedule 1 of ASPA comprises:
A. Approved breeders list only
B. Methods for transport of animals
C. ✔ Table A & Table B (methods suitable for animals and for fetal/embryonic forms) and
six approved confirmation methods of death.
D. List of banned procedures
Rationale: Schedule 1 lists humane killing methods and confirmation criteria for different
developmental stages.
Schedule 2 lists:
A. Methods of euthanasia
B. ✔ Species that MUST be obtained from a licensed breeder/supplier.
C. Environmental requirements
D. Personal licence types
Rationale: Schedule 2 identifies species that must come from regulated sources.
The Home Office Code of Practice primarily covers:
A. Drug licensing only
,ESTUDYR
B. ✔ Species-specific care & welfare needs (reception, husbandry, housing tables,
dimensions, euthanasia, etc.).
C. Patent law for lab equipment
D. Academic publishing rules
Rationale: The Code gives practical husbandry and welfare guidance for licensed
establishments.
Which animals are “protected” under ASPA?
A. All invertebrates only
B. Only domesticated mammals
C. ✔ Any living vertebrate other than man, and any living cephalopod.
D. Only mammals and birds
Rationale: Protection includes vertebrates (from defined stages) and cephalopods.
When is an animal considered “living” for ASPA purposes?
A. Until it stops breathing only
B. ✔ Until permanent cessation of circulation or destruction of its brain.
C. Until it shows movement
D. Until it can be observed by the owner
Rationale: Legal definition uses irreversible circulatory or brain cessation to define death.
What is a “regulated procedure”?
A. Any handling for grooming
B. ✔ Any procedure applied to a protected animal for a qualifying purpose that may cause
pain, suffering, distress or lasting harm equivalent to/greater than insertion of a hypodermic
needle.
C. Routine feeding only
D. Only surgical amputation
Rationale: Regulated procedures are those with potential to harm beyond a minimal threshold.
Which of the following is an example of a regulated procedure?
A. Routine vaccination by a vet in clinical practice
B. Identification by simple ear tag for provenance only
C. ✔ Administering substances parenterally (e.g., dosing, IP/IV injections) as part of an
experimental protocol.
D. Humane killing under Schedule 1 performed by trained staff
Rationale: Experimental administrations and interventions that can cause harm are regulated.
Which procedure is NOT regulated (no ASPA licence required)?
A. Inducing disease experimentally
,ESTUDYR
B. Withholding established treatments as a control
C. ✔ Non-experimental veterinary clinical care performed for animal health.
D. Surgical removal of tissue for experimental analysis
Rationale: Routine veterinary practice for individual animal health is exempt from ASPA.
What are the “Three Licences” required under ASPA?
A. Transport, import, export licences
B. ✔ Personal (PIL), Project (PPL), Establishment (PEL)
C. Breeding, selling, and testing licences
D. Food, housing, and training licences
Rationale: ASPA requires licences for the person, project and place where regulated procedures
occur.
What must an Establishment Licence include?
A. Only the list of species held
B. ✔ Details of the holder, named persons (NACWO, NVS, etc.), and schedule of premises.
C. Project protocols only
D. Annual financial report
Rationale: The PEL identifies responsible people and authorised rooms/uses.
Who are the typical “named persons” on an Establishment Licence?
A. Only the head of finance
B. ✔ NACWO, NVS, NPRC (Nominated Person Responsible for Compliance), NIO, NTCO.
C. Random volunteers
D. Students only
Rationale: Named persons have statutory responsibilities for welfare, compliance, training and
info.
What are the core duties of the Named Person Responsible for Compliance (NPRC)?
A. Animal feeding only
B. ✔ Leadership on compliance, applying the 3Rs, ensuring staffing, running AWERB,
records and registers of competent persons.
C. Cleaning cages only
D. Publishing research papers
Rationale: The NPRC oversees compliance, resources and ethical review processes.
What is AWERB (Animal Welfare & Ethical Review Body)?
A. A research lab group
B. ✔ An establishment body providing independent ethical advice on project licences and
animal care, including 3Rs review.
, ESTUDYR
C. A veterinary clinic chain
D. A student society
Rationale: AWERB reviews projects, advises on ethics and promotes good welfare and 3Rs.
Which responsibilities belong to the NACWO?
A. Granting project licences
B. ✔ Ensuring animals are seen daily by competent staff, knowing Codes, assisting AWERB
and record-keeping.
C. Conducting all surgeries
D. Financial auditing
Rationale: NACWO manages day-to-day animal care and welfare oversight.
The Named Veterinary Surgeon (NVS) must:
A. Only be on call rarely
B. ✔ Provide veterinary cover, monitor health/welfare, advise on humane killing and
medications, and certify re-use/re-homing.
C. Approve project funding
D. Teach undergraduate anatomy only
Rationale: NVS brings professional clinical oversight to animal health and welfare.
What is the role of the Named Training & Competency Officer (NTCO)?
A. Supply cages and bedding
B. ✔ Ensure staff are trained, supervised to competence, maintain training records and
endorse PIL applications.
C. Approve all publications
D. Clean equipment
Rationale: NTCO ensures personnel reach and maintain competence required by licences.
What does the Named Information Officer (NIO) do?
A. Manages the website only
B. ✔ Ensures everyone has access to up-to-date species and 3Rs information (hard
copy/electronic).
C. Performs all experiments
D. Handles animal transport exclusively
Rationale: NIO provides and curates essential information for staff and compliance.
What must a Project Licence (PPL) contain?
A. Only the PI’s CV
B. ✔ Holder details, places, scientific background, plan of work (3Rs), protocols, adverse
effects, endpoints and declarations.
PIL , HOME OFFICE LICENSEE TRAINING, BIOLOGY AND HUSBANDRY,
HOC PIL A - THE LAW & LAB ANIMALS, PIL A, B LEGISLATION ,
PERSONAL LICENSE COURSE EXAM
What is the primary purpose of the Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act (ASPA)?
A. To promote animal entertainment industries
B. To define permissible research funding sources
C. ✔ To define legitimate purposes for animal use, impose limits on pain and suffering,
ensure inspection, humane husbandry, and public accountability.
D. To ban all animal research
Rationale: ASPA sets lawful purposes, welfare limits, inspection and accountability for animal
use.
What is the Animal Procedures Committee / Animal Sentience Committee (ASC) under ASPA?
A. A licensing office that issues PPLs
B. A local university committee
C. ✔ An independent, non-departmental public body advising the Home Office on ASPA
matters (no executive powers).
D. A private veterinary association
Rationale: The ASC provides impartial advice to ministers and cannot grant licences.
Schedule 1 of ASPA comprises:
A. Approved breeders list only
B. Methods for transport of animals
C. ✔ Table A & Table B (methods suitable for animals and for fetal/embryonic forms) and
six approved confirmation methods of death.
D. List of banned procedures
Rationale: Schedule 1 lists humane killing methods and confirmation criteria for different
developmental stages.
Schedule 2 lists:
A. Methods of euthanasia
B. ✔ Species that MUST be obtained from a licensed breeder/supplier.
C. Environmental requirements
D. Personal licence types
Rationale: Schedule 2 identifies species that must come from regulated sources.
The Home Office Code of Practice primarily covers:
A. Drug licensing only
,ESTUDYR
B. ✔ Species-specific care & welfare needs (reception, husbandry, housing tables,
dimensions, euthanasia, etc.).
C. Patent law for lab equipment
D. Academic publishing rules
Rationale: The Code gives practical husbandry and welfare guidance for licensed
establishments.
Which animals are “protected” under ASPA?
A. All invertebrates only
B. Only domesticated mammals
C. ✔ Any living vertebrate other than man, and any living cephalopod.
D. Only mammals and birds
Rationale: Protection includes vertebrates (from defined stages) and cephalopods.
When is an animal considered “living” for ASPA purposes?
A. Until it stops breathing only
B. ✔ Until permanent cessation of circulation or destruction of its brain.
C. Until it shows movement
D. Until it can be observed by the owner
Rationale: Legal definition uses irreversible circulatory or brain cessation to define death.
What is a “regulated procedure”?
A. Any handling for grooming
B. ✔ Any procedure applied to a protected animal for a qualifying purpose that may cause
pain, suffering, distress or lasting harm equivalent to/greater than insertion of a hypodermic
needle.
C. Routine feeding only
D. Only surgical amputation
Rationale: Regulated procedures are those with potential to harm beyond a minimal threshold.
Which of the following is an example of a regulated procedure?
A. Routine vaccination by a vet in clinical practice
B. Identification by simple ear tag for provenance only
C. ✔ Administering substances parenterally (e.g., dosing, IP/IV injections) as part of an
experimental protocol.
D. Humane killing under Schedule 1 performed by trained staff
Rationale: Experimental administrations and interventions that can cause harm are regulated.
Which procedure is NOT regulated (no ASPA licence required)?
A. Inducing disease experimentally
,ESTUDYR
B. Withholding established treatments as a control
C. ✔ Non-experimental veterinary clinical care performed for animal health.
D. Surgical removal of tissue for experimental analysis
Rationale: Routine veterinary practice for individual animal health is exempt from ASPA.
What are the “Three Licences” required under ASPA?
A. Transport, import, export licences
B. ✔ Personal (PIL), Project (PPL), Establishment (PEL)
C. Breeding, selling, and testing licences
D. Food, housing, and training licences
Rationale: ASPA requires licences for the person, project and place where regulated procedures
occur.
What must an Establishment Licence include?
A. Only the list of species held
B. ✔ Details of the holder, named persons (NACWO, NVS, etc.), and schedule of premises.
C. Project protocols only
D. Annual financial report
Rationale: The PEL identifies responsible people and authorised rooms/uses.
Who are the typical “named persons” on an Establishment Licence?
A. Only the head of finance
B. ✔ NACWO, NVS, NPRC (Nominated Person Responsible for Compliance), NIO, NTCO.
C. Random volunteers
D. Students only
Rationale: Named persons have statutory responsibilities for welfare, compliance, training and
info.
What are the core duties of the Named Person Responsible for Compliance (NPRC)?
A. Animal feeding only
B. ✔ Leadership on compliance, applying the 3Rs, ensuring staffing, running AWERB,
records and registers of competent persons.
C. Cleaning cages only
D. Publishing research papers
Rationale: The NPRC oversees compliance, resources and ethical review processes.
What is AWERB (Animal Welfare & Ethical Review Body)?
A. A research lab group
B. ✔ An establishment body providing independent ethical advice on project licences and
animal care, including 3Rs review.
, ESTUDYR
C. A veterinary clinic chain
D. A student society
Rationale: AWERB reviews projects, advises on ethics and promotes good welfare and 3Rs.
Which responsibilities belong to the NACWO?
A. Granting project licences
B. ✔ Ensuring animals are seen daily by competent staff, knowing Codes, assisting AWERB
and record-keeping.
C. Conducting all surgeries
D. Financial auditing
Rationale: NACWO manages day-to-day animal care and welfare oversight.
The Named Veterinary Surgeon (NVS) must:
A. Only be on call rarely
B. ✔ Provide veterinary cover, monitor health/welfare, advise on humane killing and
medications, and certify re-use/re-homing.
C. Approve project funding
D. Teach undergraduate anatomy only
Rationale: NVS brings professional clinical oversight to animal health and welfare.
What is the role of the Named Training & Competency Officer (NTCO)?
A. Supply cages and bedding
B. ✔ Ensure staff are trained, supervised to competence, maintain training records and
endorse PIL applications.
C. Approve all publications
D. Clean equipment
Rationale: NTCO ensures personnel reach and maintain competence required by licences.
What does the Named Information Officer (NIO) do?
A. Manages the website only
B. ✔ Ensures everyone has access to up-to-date species and 3Rs information (hard
copy/electronic).
C. Performs all experiments
D. Handles animal transport exclusively
Rationale: NIO provides and curates essential information for staff and compliance.
What must a Project Licence (PPL) contain?
A. Only the PI’s CV
B. ✔ Holder details, places, scientific background, plan of work (3Rs), protocols, adverse
effects, endpoints and declarations.
