Final Exam: NR547 / NR 547 (Latest Update
) Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-
Mental Health across the Lifespan Practicum |
Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A –
Chamberlain
Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-Mental Health across the Lifespan Practicum
70 Verified Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Chamberlain
Covers mood, anxiety, psychotic, neurocognitive, substance use, personality, eating, ADHD,
trauma, and lifespan disorders. All answers in RED. Rationales include DSM-5-TR criteria,
evidence-based treatment, and clinical reasoning.
MOOD DISORDERS (Questions 1–20)
Question 1
A 32-year-old female presents with 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, guilt, and
suicidal ideation. No mania. Diagnosis?
Answer: Major Depressive Disorder, Severe with Suicidal Ideation
Rationale: ≥5 DSM-5-TR symptoms for ≥2 weeks; suicidal ideation indicates severity.
Question 2
A 28-year-old male has 6 days of elevated mood, grandiosity, 2 hours sleep, and risky spending.
Past depression. Diagnosis?
Answer: Bipolar I Disorder, Current Manic Episode
Rationale: ≥1 week of mania with ≥3 symptoms; marked impairment.
Question 3
A 24-year-old female has mood swings, irritability, and bloating 5–7 days before menses,
resolving post-menses. Diagnosis?
Answer: Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)
Rationale: ≥5 luteal-phase symptoms; functional impairment.
, Question 4
First-line pharmacologic treatment for MDD in a 45-year-old?
Answer: Sertraline 50 mg daily
Rationale: APA: SSRIs first-line due to efficacy and safety.
Question 5
A 55-year-old with MDD fails sertraline. Next step?
Answer: Augment with bupropion
Rationale: STAR*D: augmentation effective in non-responders.
Question 6
A 30-year-old pregnant female with bipolar I. Safest mood stabilizer?
Answer: Lamotrigine
Rationale: Lowest teratogenic risk; APA pregnancy guidelines.
Question 7
A 40-year-old with MDD has sexual dysfunction on escitalopram. Next agent?
Answer: Bupropion
Rationale: Minimal sexual side effects.
Question 8
A 27-year-old with bipolar II and depression. Best agent?
Answer: Quetiapine
Rationale: FDA-approved for bipolar depression.
Question 9
A 50-year-old with MDD and insomnia. Best agent?
Answer: Mirtazapine 15 mg HS
Rationale: Sedating; improves sleep architecture.
Question 10
A 19-year-old with first manic episode. Acute treatment?
) Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-
Mental Health across the Lifespan Practicum |
Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A –
Chamberlain
Differential Diagnosis in Psychiatric-Mental Health across the Lifespan Practicum
70 Verified Questions & Answers | 100% Correct | Grade A - Chamberlain
Covers mood, anxiety, psychotic, neurocognitive, substance use, personality, eating, ADHD,
trauma, and lifespan disorders. All answers in RED. Rationales include DSM-5-TR criteria,
evidence-based treatment, and clinical reasoning.
MOOD DISORDERS (Questions 1–20)
Question 1
A 32-year-old female presents with 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, insomnia, guilt, and
suicidal ideation. No mania. Diagnosis?
Answer: Major Depressive Disorder, Severe with Suicidal Ideation
Rationale: ≥5 DSM-5-TR symptoms for ≥2 weeks; suicidal ideation indicates severity.
Question 2
A 28-year-old male has 6 days of elevated mood, grandiosity, 2 hours sleep, and risky spending.
Past depression. Diagnosis?
Answer: Bipolar I Disorder, Current Manic Episode
Rationale: ≥1 week of mania with ≥3 symptoms; marked impairment.
Question 3
A 24-year-old female has mood swings, irritability, and bloating 5–7 days before menses,
resolving post-menses. Diagnosis?
Answer: Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)
Rationale: ≥5 luteal-phase symptoms; functional impairment.
, Question 4
First-line pharmacologic treatment for MDD in a 45-year-old?
Answer: Sertraline 50 mg daily
Rationale: APA: SSRIs first-line due to efficacy and safety.
Question 5
A 55-year-old with MDD fails sertraline. Next step?
Answer: Augment with bupropion
Rationale: STAR*D: augmentation effective in non-responders.
Question 6
A 30-year-old pregnant female with bipolar I. Safest mood stabilizer?
Answer: Lamotrigine
Rationale: Lowest teratogenic risk; APA pregnancy guidelines.
Question 7
A 40-year-old with MDD has sexual dysfunction on escitalopram. Next agent?
Answer: Bupropion
Rationale: Minimal sexual side effects.
Question 8
A 27-year-old with bipolar II and depression. Best agent?
Answer: Quetiapine
Rationale: FDA-approved for bipolar depression.
Question 9
A 50-year-old with MDD and insomnia. Best agent?
Answer: Mirtazapine 15 mg HS
Rationale: Sedating; improves sleep architecture.
Question 10
A 19-year-old with first manic episode. Acute treatment?
