PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025/2026
COMPLETE verified QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||LATEST
A client with Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD) is prescribed amphetamine (Adderall). Which side
effect should the practical nurse (PN) explain is commonly experienced?
A) Difficulty sleeping.
B) Increased fatigue.
C) Improved appetite.
D) Decreased heart rate.
A) Difficulty sleeping.
Feedback:
Adderall is a central nervous system stimulant, which often causes the client to experience difficulty
sleeping (A). Due to central nervous stimulation, Adderall causes an increase in energy, a decrease in
appetite, and an increase in heart rate, not (B, C, and D).
An older client who takes risperidone (Risperdal), an antipsychotic, is complaining of constipation.
Which dietary changes should the practical nurse (PN) recommend?
A) Increase daily green vegetables and bran.
B) Take a laxative and stool softener daily.
C) Eat liver and turnips once a week.
D) Use a retention enema every four days.
A) Increase daily green vegetables and bran.
Feedback:
Constipation, a side effect of antipsychotics, is managed by encouraging the client to drink additional
water and increase dietary roughage, such as bran and green vegetables daily (A). (B, C, and D) are
not routine recommendations for constipation.
A client's tissue culture results indicate the wound is infected with methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What action should the practical nurse (PN) implement first?
A) Provide sterile wound care as prescribed.
B) Give the first dose of Vancomycin (Vancocin).
C) Implement contact isolation precautions.
D) Document wound site appearance and drainage.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
C) Implement contact isolation precautions.
Feedback:
The risk of transmitting a hospital acquired infectious disease among clients is high with an organism
such as MRSA. Infection prevention and control practices, including contact isolation precautions,
should be implemented first (C). (A, B, and D) may be implemented after isolation precautions are in
place.
The practical nurse asks a male client who came to the clinic with an upper respiratory infection if he
has any drug allergies. The client cannot remember if he does or if he ever received penicillin. After
administering the injection of penicillin, the PN tells the client to stay for 30 minutes of observation.
Which finding should the PN identify that is indicative of a reaction to the medication?
A) Rash, itching, and hives.
B) Fever and abdominal pain.
C) Drop in temperature and blood pressure.
D) A vasovagal response with bradycardia.
A) Rash, itching, and hives.
Feedback:
A client who is unsure about the response to a new antibiotic, especially penicillin, should be
assessed for allergy to the drug after receiving a parenteral dose. The symptoms that indicate an
allergic reaction include rash, itching, hives (A) and anaphylactic reactions causing laryngeal edema
with difficulty breathing. (B, C, and D) are not typical of allergic responses to penicillin.
A client receives a prescription for clotrimazole 1% (Gyne-Lotrimin) vaginal cream for Candidiasis.
Which information should the practical nurse provide the client?
A) Discontinue medication if menstruation begins.
B) Instill cream using the intravaginal applicator each night for 7 days.
C) Use daily douching as part of the treatment for vaginal yeast infections.
D) Abstain from sexual intercourse until treatment is completed.
B) Instill cream using the intravaginal applicator each night for 7 days.
Feedback:
The intravaginal cream should be instilled each night for 7 days to complete the medication (B) even
if symptoms are relieved. Medication should be continued until it is completed, even during
menstruation (A). Douching (C) is contraindicated. Abstinence (D) is not required.
A client receives a new prescription for beclomethasone (Beclovent Oral Inhaler). What information
should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce with the client about the use of this medication?
A) Use for rapid results in acute asthmatic attacks.
B) Most effective in preventing upper respiratory infections.
C) Daily use provides prophylaxis in asthma management.
D) Inhale when exposed to allergens in the environment.
C) Daily use provides prophylaxis in asthma management.
Feedback:
A+ TEST BANK 2
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
Beclovent Oral Inhaler, an inhaled glucocorticoid, is used for prophylaxis in the management of
chronic asthma (C) and should be administered on a fixed schedule, not (D). Inhaled beta 2 agonists,
not a glucocorticoid, work rapidly in acute asthma attacks (A) precipitated by environmental allergen
exposure (D).
A client with tuberculosis (TB) asks the practical nurse (PN) the value of prescribed multidrug
therapy. What explanation should the PN provide?
A) Required to eradicate TB.
B) Enhances the effect of each drug.
C) Provides a faster effect than single drug therapy.
D) Reduces development of TB resistant drugs.
D) Reduces development of TB resistant drugs.
Feedback:
The use of multiple medications reduces the possibility of the tubercle bacilli becoming drug
resistant (D). (A, B, and C) are incorrect.
The healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic for a male adolescent with an upper respiratory tract
infection who asks the practical nurse (PN) how long the prescribed antibiotics should be taken.
What information should the PN provide?
A) Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken.
B) Use the medication for 24 hours after the cough subsides.
C) Stop the medication when the temperature returns to normal.
D) Take any remaining capsules if the infection occurs again.
A) Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken.
Feedback:
Although the client may feel better after 24 hours of antibiotics, the prescription (A) should be taken
until all of it is used. If the antibiotic is discontinued because symptoms have disappeared (B and C),
pathogens have an opportunity to increase in virulence or become resistant to the drug. Antibiotics
should not be saved (D) for other infections, but new symptoms should be evaluated by the
healthcare provider.
A male client tells the practical nurse (PN) that he takes acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 325 mg daily.
Which finding should alert the PN that the client may be experiencing a side effect of salicylate
therapy?
A) Skin tears.
B) Hypothermia.
C) Hepatotoxicity.
D) Gastrointestinal distress.
D) Gastrointestinal distress.
Feedback:
A+ TEST BANK 3
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
Salicylates, such as aspirin, commonly irritate the gastric mucosa, causing gastrointestinal distress
(D). (A, B, and C) are inaccurate.
The healthcare provider prescribes celecoxib (Celebrex), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID), for a client with osteoarthritis. Which finding in the client's history should the practical
nurse (PN) report?
A) Gout.
B) Hypertension.
C) Diabetes mellitus.
D) Peptic-ulcer disease.
D) Peptic-ulcer disease.
Feedback:
Celecoxib (Celebrex), an NSAID, causes gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. Peptic-ulcer disease is
a contraindication to therapy with NSAIDs (D). (A, B, and C) are inaccurate.
What laboratory results should the practical nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effects of
heparin?
A) Platelet count.
B) Hematocrit.
C) Prothrombin time (PT).
D) Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).
D) Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).
Feedback:
Ongoing APTT (D) values measure the prolongation times of thromboplastin in the clotting cascade,
which is monitored during heparin therapy. (A, B, and C) do not indicate the therapeutic action of
heparin.
Which information should the practical nurse (PN) provide a client who receives a new prescription
for a benzodiazepine medication?
A) A list of foods to avoid while taking this prescription.
B) Symptoms that indicate increasing the dose of medication.
C) The interactions of alcohol consumption and CNS depressant drugs.
D) Explanations that support taking a work absence during drug therapy.
C) The interactions of alcohol consumption and CNS depressant drugs.
Feedback:
The concomitant use of alcohol and benzodiazepines (C), both CNS depressants, causes an increase
A+ TEST BANK 4
PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025/2026
COMPLETE verified QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||LATEST
A client with Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD) is prescribed amphetamine (Adderall). Which side
effect should the practical nurse (PN) explain is commonly experienced?
A) Difficulty sleeping.
B) Increased fatigue.
C) Improved appetite.
D) Decreased heart rate.
A) Difficulty sleeping.
Feedback:
Adderall is a central nervous system stimulant, which often causes the client to experience difficulty
sleeping (A). Due to central nervous stimulation, Adderall causes an increase in energy, a decrease in
appetite, and an increase in heart rate, not (B, C, and D).
An older client who takes risperidone (Risperdal), an antipsychotic, is complaining of constipation.
Which dietary changes should the practical nurse (PN) recommend?
A) Increase daily green vegetables and bran.
B) Take a laxative and stool softener daily.
C) Eat liver and turnips once a week.
D) Use a retention enema every four days.
A) Increase daily green vegetables and bran.
Feedback:
Constipation, a side effect of antipsychotics, is managed by encouraging the client to drink additional
water and increase dietary roughage, such as bran and green vegetables daily (A). (B, C, and D) are
not routine recommendations for constipation.
A client's tissue culture results indicate the wound is infected with methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). What action should the practical nurse (PN) implement first?
A) Provide sterile wound care as prescribed.
B) Give the first dose of Vancomycin (Vancocin).
C) Implement contact isolation precautions.
D) Document wound site appearance and drainage.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
C) Implement contact isolation precautions.
Feedback:
The risk of transmitting a hospital acquired infectious disease among clients is high with an organism
such as MRSA. Infection prevention and control practices, including contact isolation precautions,
should be implemented first (C). (A, B, and D) may be implemented after isolation precautions are in
place.
The practical nurse asks a male client who came to the clinic with an upper respiratory infection if he
has any drug allergies. The client cannot remember if he does or if he ever received penicillin. After
administering the injection of penicillin, the PN tells the client to stay for 30 minutes of observation.
Which finding should the PN identify that is indicative of a reaction to the medication?
A) Rash, itching, and hives.
B) Fever and abdominal pain.
C) Drop in temperature and blood pressure.
D) A vasovagal response with bradycardia.
A) Rash, itching, and hives.
Feedback:
A client who is unsure about the response to a new antibiotic, especially penicillin, should be
assessed for allergy to the drug after receiving a parenteral dose. The symptoms that indicate an
allergic reaction include rash, itching, hives (A) and anaphylactic reactions causing laryngeal edema
with difficulty breathing. (B, C, and D) are not typical of allergic responses to penicillin.
A client receives a prescription for clotrimazole 1% (Gyne-Lotrimin) vaginal cream for Candidiasis.
Which information should the practical nurse provide the client?
A) Discontinue medication if menstruation begins.
B) Instill cream using the intravaginal applicator each night for 7 days.
C) Use daily douching as part of the treatment for vaginal yeast infections.
D) Abstain from sexual intercourse until treatment is completed.
B) Instill cream using the intravaginal applicator each night for 7 days.
Feedback:
The intravaginal cream should be instilled each night for 7 days to complete the medication (B) even
if symptoms are relieved. Medication should be continued until it is completed, even during
menstruation (A). Douching (C) is contraindicated. Abstinence (D) is not required.
A client receives a new prescription for beclomethasone (Beclovent Oral Inhaler). What information
should the practical nurse (PN) reinforce with the client about the use of this medication?
A) Use for rapid results in acute asthmatic attacks.
B) Most effective in preventing upper respiratory infections.
C) Daily use provides prophylaxis in asthma management.
D) Inhale when exposed to allergens in the environment.
C) Daily use provides prophylaxis in asthma management.
Feedback:
A+ TEST BANK 2
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
Beclovent Oral Inhaler, an inhaled glucocorticoid, is used for prophylaxis in the management of
chronic asthma (C) and should be administered on a fixed schedule, not (D). Inhaled beta 2 agonists,
not a glucocorticoid, work rapidly in acute asthma attacks (A) precipitated by environmental allergen
exposure (D).
A client with tuberculosis (TB) asks the practical nurse (PN) the value of prescribed multidrug
therapy. What explanation should the PN provide?
A) Required to eradicate TB.
B) Enhances the effect of each drug.
C) Provides a faster effect than single drug therapy.
D) Reduces development of TB resistant drugs.
D) Reduces development of TB resistant drugs.
Feedback:
The use of multiple medications reduces the possibility of the tubercle bacilli becoming drug
resistant (D). (A, B, and C) are incorrect.
The healthcare provider prescribes an antibiotic for a male adolescent with an upper respiratory tract
infection who asks the practical nurse (PN) how long the prescribed antibiotics should be taken.
What information should the PN provide?
A) Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken.
B) Use the medication for 24 hours after the cough subsides.
C) Stop the medication when the temperature returns to normal.
D) Take any remaining capsules if the infection occurs again.
A) Continue the medication until all of the prescription is taken.
Feedback:
Although the client may feel better after 24 hours of antibiotics, the prescription (A) should be taken
until all of it is used. If the antibiotic is discontinued because symptoms have disappeared (B and C),
pathogens have an opportunity to increase in virulence or become resistant to the drug. Antibiotics
should not be saved (D) for other infections, but new symptoms should be evaluated by the
healthcare provider.
A male client tells the practical nurse (PN) that he takes acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin) 325 mg daily.
Which finding should alert the PN that the client may be experiencing a side effect of salicylate
therapy?
A) Skin tears.
B) Hypothermia.
C) Hepatotoxicity.
D) Gastrointestinal distress.
D) Gastrointestinal distress.
Feedback:
A+ TEST BANK 3
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
Salicylates, such as aspirin, commonly irritate the gastric mucosa, causing gastrointestinal distress
(D). (A, B, and C) are inaccurate.
The healthcare provider prescribes celecoxib (Celebrex), a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID), for a client with osteoarthritis. Which finding in the client's history should the practical
nurse (PN) report?
A) Gout.
B) Hypertension.
C) Diabetes mellitus.
D) Peptic-ulcer disease.
D) Peptic-ulcer disease.
Feedback:
Celecoxib (Celebrex), an NSAID, causes gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding. Peptic-ulcer disease is
a contraindication to therapy with NSAIDs (D). (A, B, and C) are inaccurate.
What laboratory results should the practical nurse monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effects of
heparin?
A) Platelet count.
B) Hematocrit.
C) Prothrombin time (PT).
D) Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).
D) Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).
Feedback:
Ongoing APTT (D) values measure the prolongation times of thromboplastin in the clotting cascade,
which is monitored during heparin therapy. (A, B, and C) do not indicate the therapeutic action of
heparin.
Which information should the practical nurse (PN) provide a client who receives a new prescription
for a benzodiazepine medication?
A) A list of foods to avoid while taking this prescription.
B) Symptoms that indicate increasing the dose of medication.
C) The interactions of alcohol consumption and CNS depressant drugs.
D) Explanations that support taking a work absence during drug therapy.
C) The interactions of alcohol consumption and CNS depressant drugs.
Feedback:
The concomitant use of alcohol and benzodiazepines (C), both CNS depressants, causes an increase
A+ TEST BANK 4
