PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025/2026
COMPLETE verified QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW!!
Ribavirin is prescribed for a hospitalized child with severe respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The nurse
prepares to administer this medication via which route?
1.Oral
2.Oxygen tent
3.Intramuscular
4.Subcutaneous
2. Oxygen tent
Ribavirin is an antiviral respiratory medication used mainly for hospitalized children with severe RSV.
Administration is via hood, face mask, or oxygen tent. Ribavirin is not administered orally,
intramuscularly, or subcutaneously.
A client who has had a prostatectomy is complaining of pain from bladder spasms. The nurse checks
the primary health care provider's prescription sheet and expects to see which medication
prescribed to treat the problem?
1.Oxybutynin
2.Hydromorphone
3.Morphine sulfate
4.Meperidine hydrochloride
1.Oxybutynin
Bladder spasms after prostatectomy are treated with antispasmodic medications, such as
oxybutynin. Opioid analgesics such as morphine sulfate, hydromorphone, and meperidine
hydrochloride usually are not effective in treating pain caused by spasms.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
The nurse is caring for a client receiving an albuterol/ipratropium nebulized breathing treatment.
Which report from the client should the nurse note as an expected side effect of this combination
medication?
1."I feel like my heart is racing."
2."I feel more bloated than usual."
3."My eyes have been watering lately."
4."I haven't had a bowel movement in 4 days."
1."I feel like my heart is racing."
Albuterol/ipratropium is a combination agent—one is a β2-adrenergic agonist and the other is an
anticholinergic medication, and in combination they produce an overall bronchodilation effect.
Common side and adverse effects include headache, dizziness, dry mouth, tremors, nervousness,
and tachycardia. Therefore, option 1 is correct. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not specifically associated with
this medication.
The nurse is caring for a child with heart failure (HF). The nurse provides instructions to the mother
regarding the procedure for administration of the prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the
mother indicates a need for further teaching?
1."I will make sure to mix the medication with food."
2."I need to take my child's pulse before administering the medication."
3."If more than 1 dose is missed, I need to call the primary health care provider."
4."If my child vomits after being given the medication, I should not repeat the dose."
1."I will make sure to mix the medication with food."
Medication should not be mixed with food because this method of administration would not ensure
that the child received the prescribed dose. The parents need to be instructed that if the child vomits
after the digoxin is administered, they are not to repeat the dose. In addition, the parents should be
instructed that if a dose is missed and is not identified until 4 or more hours later, the dose should
not be administered. If more than 1 dose is missed, the primary health care provider needs to be
notified.
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
A) Penicillins.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate
(Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this drug.
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite
cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and
mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical
interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.
When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most
important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse
to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate liver
damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where pain would be anticipated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion
sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6
hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on
the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine
blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site
A+ TEST BANK 3
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS
depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the
immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1
mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What assessment has the
highest priority before initiating the PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is
respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if
the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate
adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful
information, but are not as high a priority as the assessment described in (B).
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which
condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma.
C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are
indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.
Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1
blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2
receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as
asthma (D).
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To
prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which
information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A+ TEST BANK 4
PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025/2026
COMPLETE verified QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS WITH DETAILED
RATIONALES |ALREADY GRADED
A+||BRAND NEW!!
Ribavirin is prescribed for a hospitalized child with severe respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). The nurse
prepares to administer this medication via which route?
1.Oral
2.Oxygen tent
3.Intramuscular
4.Subcutaneous
2. Oxygen tent
Ribavirin is an antiviral respiratory medication used mainly for hospitalized children with severe RSV.
Administration is via hood, face mask, or oxygen tent. Ribavirin is not administered orally,
intramuscularly, or subcutaneously.
A client who has had a prostatectomy is complaining of pain from bladder spasms. The nurse checks
the primary health care provider's prescription sheet and expects to see which medication
prescribed to treat the problem?
1.Oxybutynin
2.Hydromorphone
3.Morphine sulfate
4.Meperidine hydrochloride
1.Oxybutynin
Bladder spasms after prostatectomy are treated with antispasmodic medications, such as
oxybutynin. Opioid analgesics such as morphine sulfate, hydromorphone, and meperidine
hydrochloride usually are not effective in treating pain caused by spasms.
A+ TEST BANK 1
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
The nurse is caring for a client receiving an albuterol/ipratropium nebulized breathing treatment.
Which report from the client should the nurse note as an expected side effect of this combination
medication?
1."I feel like my heart is racing."
2."I feel more bloated than usual."
3."My eyes have been watering lately."
4."I haven't had a bowel movement in 4 days."
1."I feel like my heart is racing."
Albuterol/ipratropium is a combination agent—one is a β2-adrenergic agonist and the other is an
anticholinergic medication, and in combination they produce an overall bronchodilation effect.
Common side and adverse effects include headache, dizziness, dry mouth, tremors, nervousness,
and tachycardia. Therefore, option 1 is correct. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not specifically associated with
this medication.
The nurse is caring for a child with heart failure (HF). The nurse provides instructions to the mother
regarding the procedure for administration of the prescribed digoxin. Which statement by the
mother indicates a need for further teaching?
1."I will make sure to mix the medication with food."
2."I need to take my child's pulse before administering the medication."
3."If more than 1 dose is missed, I need to call the primary health care provider."
4."If my child vomits after being given the medication, I should not repeat the dose."
1."I will make sure to mix the medication with food."
Medication should not be mixed with food because this method of administration would not ensure
that the child received the prescribed dose. The parents need to be instructed that if the child vomits
after the digoxin is administered, they are not to repeat the dose. In addition, the parents should be
instructed that if a dose is missed and is not identified until 4 or more hours later, the dose should
not be administered. If more than 1 dose is missed, the primary health care provider needs to be
notified.
A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate (Keflex) for a client with a postoperative
infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug allergy before
administering this prescription?
A) Penicillins.
B) Aminoglycosides.
C) Erythromycins.
D) Sulfonamides.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
A) Penicillins.
Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin monohydrate
(Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before administering this drug.
Which nursing intervention is most important when caring for a client receiving the antimetabolite
cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) for chemotherapy?
A) Hydrate the client with IV fluids before and after infusion.
B) Assess the client for numbness and tingling of extremities.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
D) Monitor the client's urine pH for increased acidity.
C) Inspect the client's oral mucosa for ulcerations.
Cytosine arabinoside (Arc-C) affects the rapidly growing cells of the body, therefore stomatitis and
mucosal ulcerations are key signs of antimetabolite toxicity (C). (A, B, and D) are not typical
interventions associated with the administration of antimetabolites.
When assessing an adolescent who recently overdosed on acetaminophen (Tylenol), it is most
important for the nurse to assess for pain in which area of the body?
A) Flank.
B) Abdomen.
C) Chest.
D) Head.
B) Abdomen.
Acetaminophen toxicity can result in liver damage; therefore, it is especially important for the nurse
to assess for pain in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen (B), which might indicate liver
damage. (A, C, and D) are not areas where pain would be anticipated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent motion
sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset in 6
hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before departure (A) on
the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not needed. Scolopamine
blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center, so the best application site
A+ TEST BANK 3
, PHARMACOLOGY HESI EXAM 2025
of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C). Anticholinergic medications are CNS
depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid alcohol (D) while using the patch.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump with a client in the
immediate postoperative period. The client will receive morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1
mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA to total 5 mg IV maximally per hour. What assessment has the
highest priority before initiating the PCA pump?
A) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
C) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
D) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
B) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
A life-threatening side effect of intravenous administration of morphine sulfate, an opiate narcotic, is
respiratory depression (B). The PCA pump should be stopped and the healthcare provider notified if
the client's respiratory rate falls below 12 breaths per minute, and the nurse should anticipate
adjustments in the client's dosage before the PCA pump is restarted. (A, C, and D) provide helpful
information, but are not as high a priority as the assessment described in (B).
A medication that is classified as a beta-1 agonist is most commonly prescribed for a client with which
condition?
A) Glaucoma.
B) Hypertension.
C) Heart failure.
D) Asthma.
C) Heart failure.
Beta-1 agonists improve cardiac output by increasing the heart rate and blood pressure and are
indicated in heart failure (C), shock, atrioventricular block dysrhythmias, and cardiac arrest.
Glaucoma (A) is managed using adrenergic agents and beta-adrenergic blocking agents. Beta-1
blocking agents are used in the management of hypertension (B). Medications that stimulate beta-2
receptors in the bronchi are effective for bronchoconstriction in respiratory disorders, such as
asthma (D).
A female client with rheumatoid arthritis take ibuprofen (Motrin) 600 mg PO 4 times a day. To
prevent gastrointestinal bleeding, misoprostol (Cytotec) 100 mcg PO is prescribed. Which
information is most important for the nurse to include in client teaching?
A) Use contraception during intercourse.
B) Ensure the Cytotec is taken on an empty stomach.
C) Encourage oral fluid intake to prevent constipation.
D) Take Cytotec 30 minutes prior to Motrin.
A+ TEST BANK 4
