HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST DOWNLOADED 2025/2026 A COMPLETE
SOLUTION ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED RATED A+ FOR
PASS
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client
with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because her ears are
ringing. What action should the nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. - CORRECT ANSWERS C.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be notified
immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A and D) are not needed, and (B) is
inaccurate.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which
prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this client
A. Dopamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Diphenhydramine - CORRECT ANSWERS C.
Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac
automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a
vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction
and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine
decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with
osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be
effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness.
,HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST DOWNLOADED 2025/2026 A COMPLETE
SOLUTION ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED RATED A+ FOR
PASS
B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - CORRECT
ANSWERS C.
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best
response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for
naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to teach this client?
A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - CORRECT ANSWERS A.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk
for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable
form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X
drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare
provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although
the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during
pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
, HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST DOWNLOADED 2025/2026 A COMPLETE
SOLUTION ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED RATED A+ FOR
PASS
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - CORRECT ANSWERS A.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset
in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before
departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not
needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center,
so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C).
Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid
alcohol (D) while using the patch.
A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an
increase in which laboratory value as the result of this medication?
A) Serum glucose.
B) Serum calcium.
C) Red blood cells.
D) Serum potassium. - CORRECT ANSWERS A.
Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid actions. These effects
can lead to hyperglycemia (A), which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The
client taking Solu-Medrol is at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D), which result in a
decrease, not an increase, in the serum calcium and serum potassium levels. This medication
does not adversely affect the RBC count (C).
The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room.
Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's
A) statement that the chest pain is better.
B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily.
D) pupils are constricted bilaterally. - CORRECT ANSWERS B.
ANSWERS LATEST DOWNLOADED 2025/2026 A COMPLETE
SOLUTION ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED RATED A+ FOR
PASS
The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of high dose aspirin therapy for an 88-year-old client
with arthritis. The client reports that she can't hear the nurse's questions because her ears are
ringing. What action should the nurse implement?
A) Refer the client to an audiologist for evaluation of her hearing.
B) Advise the client that this is a common side effect of aspirin therapy.
C) Notify the healthcare provider of this finding immediately.
D) Ask the client to turn off her hearing aid during the exam. - CORRECT ANSWERS C.
Tinnitus is an early sign of salicylate toxicity. The healthcare provider should be notified
immediately (C), and the medication discontinued. (A and D) are not needed, and (B) is
inaccurate.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which
prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this client
A. Dopamine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Diphenhydramine - CORRECT ANSWERS C.
Epinephrine (C) is an adrenergic agent that stimulate beta receptors to increase cardiac
automaticity in cardiac arrest and relax bronchospasms in anaphylaxis. Dopamine (A) is a
vasopressor used to treat clients with shock. Ephedrine (B) causes peripheral vasoconstriction
and is used in the treatment of nasal congestion. Diphenhydramine (D) is an antihistamine
decongestant used in the treatment of mild allergic reactions and motion sickness.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naproxen) twice daily for a client with
osteoarthritis of the hands. The client tells the nurse that the drug does not seem to be
effective after three weeks. Which is the best response for the nurse to provide?
A) The frequency of the dosing is necessary to increase the effectiveness.
,HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST DOWNLOADED 2025/2026 A COMPLETE
SOLUTION ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED RATED A+ FOR
PASS
B) Therapeutic blood levels of this drug are reached in 4 to 6 weeks.
C) Another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug may be indicated.
D) Systemic corticosteroids are the next drugs of choice for pain relief. - CORRECT
ANSWERS C.
Individual responses to nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are variable, so (C) is the best
response. Naproxen is usually prescribed every 8 hours, so (A) is not indicated. The peak for
naproxen is one to two hours, not (B). Corticosteroids are not indicated for osteoarthritis (D).
A category X drug is prescribed for a young adult female client. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to teach this client?
A) Use a reliable form of birth control.
B) Avoid exposure to ultra violet light.
C) Refuse this medication if planning pregnancy.
D) Abstain from intercourse while on this drug. - CORRECT ANSWERS A.
Drugs classified in the category X place a client who is in the first trimester of pregnancy at risk
for teratogenesis, so women in the childbearing years should be counseled to use a reliable
form of birth control (A) during drug therapy. (B) is not a specific precaution with Category X
drugs. The client should be encouraged to discuss plans for pregnancy with the healthcare
provider, so a safer alternative prescription (C) can be provided if pregnancy occurs. Although
the risk of birth defects during pregnancy explains the restriction of these drugs during
pregnancy, (D) is not indicated.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm Scop) to prevent
motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should the nurse provide to the client?
A) Apply the patch at least 4 hours prior to departure.
B) Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
C) Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
, HESI PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS LATEST DOWNLOADED 2025/2026 A COMPLETE
SOLUTION ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED RATED A+ FOR
PASS
D) Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise. - CORRECT ANSWERS A.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and has a peak onset
in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch at least 4 hours before
departure (A) on the cruise ship. The duration of the transdermal patch is 72 hours, so (B) is not
needed. Scolopamine blocks muscarinic receptors in the inner ear and to the vomiting center,
so the best application site of the patch is behind the ear, not at the base of the skull (C).
Anticholinergic medications are CNS depressants, so the client should be instructed to avoid
alcohol (D) while using the patch.
A client is receiving methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 40 mg IV daily. The nurse anticipates an
increase in which laboratory value as the result of this medication?
A) Serum glucose.
B) Serum calcium.
C) Red blood cells.
D) Serum potassium. - CORRECT ANSWERS A.
Solu-Medrol is a corticosteroid with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid actions. These effects
can lead to hyperglycemia (A), which is reflected as an increase in the serum glucose value. The
client taking Solu-Medrol is at risk for hypocalcemia (B) and hypokalemia (D), which result in a
decrease, not an increase, in the serum calcium and serum potassium levels. This medication
does not adversely affect the RBC count (C).
The healthcare provider prescribes naloxone (Narcan) for a client in the emergency room.
Which assessment data would indicate that the naloxone has been effective? The client's
A) statement that the chest pain is better.
B) respiratory rate is 16 breaths/minute.
C) seizure activity has stopped temporarily.
D) pupils are constricted bilaterally. - CORRECT ANSWERS B.
