CST practice exam 1, 2 & 3 Each With 175 Questions and Correct Answers (100% Correct Answers) CST Exam 2025 (Certified Surgical Technologist Exam 2025 Test Bank

1. Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia? a. I b. V c. VI d. VII b. V 2. What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome? a. Bacitracin ointment b. Lodophor solution c. Petrolatum gel d. Mineral oil d. Mineral oil 3. Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft? a. Donor site first b. Recipient site first c. Donor site only d. Recipient site only a. Donor site first 4. What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic procedure? a. 8-11 mm Hg b. 12-15 mm Hg c. 16-19 mm Hg d. 20-23 mm Hg b. 12-15 mm Hg 5. Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object? a. Strabismus b. Chalazion c. Glaucoma d. Cataract a. Strabismus 6. What procedure is perform to correct chronic cerebral ischemia? a. Rhizotomy b. Cranioplasty c. Arteriography d. Endarterectomy d. Endarterectomy 7. According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk? a. 27% b. 18% c. 4 1/2% d. 1% b. 18% 8. Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells? a. Atrophy b. Dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy c. Hyperplasia 9. A second intention wound heals by: a. Granulation b. Evisceration c. Primary union d. Delayed suturing a. Granulation 10. Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with: a. Lidocaine b. Digitoxin c. Prostigmin d. Furosemide a. Lidocaine 11. How many milliters equal 2 ounces? a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70 c. 60 12. Covering a sterile back table for later us is: a. Permissible for up to one hour before the procedure b. Permissible in instances of an emergency c. Not permissible for up to 2 hours before the procedure d. Not permissible under any circumstances d. Not permissible under any circumstances 13. In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia? a. Left lateral b. Right lateral c. Trendelenburg d. Reverse Trendelenburg c. Trendelenburg 14. Which of the following types of suture create the least tissue trauma and drag? a. Swaged multifilament b. Swaged monofilament c. Threaded multifilament d. Threaded monofilament b. Swaged monofilament 15. Which organization has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place? a. EPA b. CDC c. OSHA d. NIOSH c. OSHA 16. Which level of maslow's hierarchy of needs is most applicable to the surgical patient? a. Esteem and prestige b. Love and belonging c. Safety and security d. Physiological and survival d. Physiological and survival 17. Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves? a. Circulator unties gown b. Gown removed inside-out c. Gloves removed inside out d. Gloves removed first d. Gloves removed first 18. What type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape? a. Pilonidal cystectomy b. Subacromial decompression c. Abdomnioperineal resection d. Femorofemoral bypass c. Abdomnioperineal resection 19. Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by: a. Cellular membrane damage b. Interrupt cellular division c. Altering cellular DNA d. Coagulation of protein d. Coagulation of protein 20. Which technique is not acceptable when draping? a. Hold the drapes 12 inches above the patient until over the draping site b. Protect gloved hand by cuffing end of drape over it c. Unfold drape before bringing upto the OR table d. Place drapes on dry area when setting up back table c. Unfold drape before bringing upto the OR table 21. A patient's fingernail polish is removed to: a. Prevent surgical wound infection b. Allow temperature to be recorded c. Prevent ESU exit pathway d. Allow for use of pulse oximeter d. Allow for use of pulse oximeter 22. What is the purpose of maintaining air exchange rate at 15-20 time per hour in the OR? a. Reduce microbial count b. Increase humidity c. Provide comfortable environment d. Decrease static electricity a. Reduce microbial count 23. How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5mL balloon on the foley indwelling catheter? a. 5 mL b. 10 mL c. 15 mL d. 20 mL b. 10 mL 24. If an opthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed? a. Electric trimmer used on dry lashes b. Electric trimmer used on wet lashes c. Fine scissors without water-soluble gel d. Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel d. Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel 25. What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep? a. Incision site to periphery using circular motion b. Periphery to incision site using circular motion c. Incision site to periphery using back-and-forth motion d. Periphery to incision site using back-and-forth motion a. Incision site to periphery using circular motion 26. The laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is: a. Reticulocyte count b. Differential count c. Hematocrit d. Hemoglobin c. Hematocrit 27. What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges conatins an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR? a. Record actual number and use b. Hand off the sterile field and isolate c. Place on sterile back table and do not use d. Remove from the OR b. Hand off the sterile field and isolate 28. Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution? a. Colon b. Calculi c. Tonsils d. Utuerus b. Calculi 29. Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts? a. Back table b. Mayo stand c. Off the field d. Operative field d. Operative field 30. Which of the following catheter tips is used in a patient with a urethral stricture? a. Olive b. Coude c. Whistle d. Mushroom b. Coude 31. Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing? a. Neck b. Inguinal c. Extremity d. Abdominal a. Neck 32. Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy? a. Monopolar cautery b. Nerve stimulator c. Microscope d. Doppler b. Nerve stimulator 33. Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?] a. Topical thrombin b. Oxidized cellulose c. Absorbable gelatin d. Absorbable collagen d. Absorbable collagen 34. During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate: a. Proper circulation b. Wound hemostasis c. Adequate respirations d. Tissue approximation d. Tissue approximation 35. Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope? a. Light source b. Laser fiber c. Nitrogen level d. Magnification lens a. Light source 36. Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct: a. Patent ductus arteriosus b. Coarctation of the aorta c. Aortic aneurysm d. Transposition of the great vessels b. Coarctation of the aorta 37. For which of the following diagnoses would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography? a. Cholecystitis b. Choledocholithiasis c. Pancreatitis d. Pancreatolithiasis b. Choledocholithiasis 38. The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an: a. Spermatocelectomy b. Varicocelectomy c. Epididymectomy d. Vasvovasostomy b. Varicocelectomy 39. Trauma to which two fo the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision? a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV a. I and II 40. Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy? a. Culdocentesis b. Colpscopy c. Culdotomy d. Colporrhaphy a. Culdocentesis 41. Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma? a. Vitrectomy b. Iridectomy c. Enucleation d. Keratoplasty b. Iridectomy 42. What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture? a. Arc bar application b. TMJ osteotomy c. LeFort I d. LeFort II a. Arc bar application 43. Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint? a. Hip b. Knee c. Ankle d. Shoulder a. Hip 44. Untreated acute otitis media may result in: a. Tonsillitis b. Mastoiditis c. Adenoiditis d. Ethmoiditis b. Mastoiditis 45. Which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency? a. Positron emission tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Computed tomography d. Doppler ultrasound d. Doppler ultrasound 47. Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy? a. Carbohydrates b. Vitamins c. Proteins d. Fats a. Carbohydrates 48. What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation? a. Hyoid b. Manubrium c. Thyroid gland d. Cricoid cartilage d. Cricoid cartilage 49. What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body? a. In-situ b. In-vivo c. Metastasis d. Encapsulation c. Metastasis 50. The shared passageway for food and air is the: a. Trachea b. Larynx c. Pharynx d. Bronchus c. Pharynx 51. The structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the: a. Prostate b. Epidiymis c. Tunica vaginalis d. Ejaculatory duct b. Epidiymis 52. The valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the: a. Bicuspid b. Tricuspid c. Aortic semilunar d. Pulmonary semilunar a. Bicuspid 53. Which characteristic describes an amphiarthrosis? a. Hinge b. Immobile c. Slightly movable d. Freely movable c. Slightly movable 54. What is the most abundant ion in the body? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium a. Calcium 55. Which of the following is a method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conductive to growth and viability? a. Conjugation b. Transduction c. Spore formation d. Genetic mutation c. Spore formation 56. What organ detects changes int eh level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Pancreas d. Gallbladder c. Pancreas 57. What does the term strike-through mean? a. Rupture of heat seal during sterilization b. Failure of biological indicator during sterilization c. Perforation of sharp object through sterile wrapper d. Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers d. Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers 58. Which of the following monitoring devices would be used within a vessel? a. ECG lead b. Swan Ganz c. Pulse Oximeter d. Sphygmomanometer b. Swan Ganz 59. When adding 30mL of injectable saline to 30mL of 0.5% marcaine, what strength does the drug become? a. 0.25% b. 0.5% c. 0.75% d. 1.0% a. 0.25% 60. What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery? a. Transport patient to OR; inform surgeon b. Do not transport patient; inform surgeon c. Do not transport patient; inform anesthesia provider d. Transport patient to OR; inform OR supervisor b. Do not transport patient; inform surgeon 61. Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following? a. Fomite formation b. Personnel injury c. Isntrument loss d. Cross-contaimination d. Cross-contaimination 62. The unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap is: a. 1/2 inch b. 1 inch c. 2 inches d. 3 inches b. 1 inch 63. A substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue is a/an: a. Antiseptic b. Disinfectant c. Sterilant d. Sporicidal a. Antiseptic 64. What action should be taken by transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing unit? a. Try to locate family members to verify patient identity b. Transport to OR and inform surgeon of discrepancy c. Inform unit clerk of discrepancy and return to OR d. Do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personnel d. Do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personnel 65. A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to a. Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect b. Determine if the patient is allergic to soap c. Reduce the amount of time for the pre-op prep d. Leave a visible film so the prep borders will show a. Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect 66. What are sequential steps performed prior to enrance into the sterile field? a. Gown, glove, scrub b. Glove, scrub, gown c. Scrub, glove, gown d. Scrub, gown, glove d. Scrub, gown, glove 67. Which area is prepped last when performing the skin prep for a bartholin's cystectomy? a. Anus b. Mons pubis c. Vagina d. Perineum a. Anus 68. The sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from a. Side to side b. Back to front c. Front to back d. Open drape, lay it down c. Front to back 69. Which of the following can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degrees? a. Bracial plexus b. Cervical plexus c. Rotator cuff d. Acromioclavicular joint a. Bracial plexus 70. What is the purpose of the third lumen in a three-way indwelling foley catheter? a. Obtain urine specimen b. Instill irrigation fluids c. Provide hemostasis d. Prevent urine reflux b. Instill irrigation fluids 71. Which of the following enlarges and illuminates the surgical field during cataract procedures? a. Fluorescent overheadt lights b. Fiberoptic headlamps c. Operating microscope d. Surgical loupes c. Operating microscope 72. Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures are: a. Ratecs b. Kitners c. Pledgets d. Cottonoid d. Cottonoid 73. Which of the following hemostatic agents must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments? a. Oxycel b. Avitene c. Gelfoam d. Thrombin b. Avitene 74. Which surgical specialty would utilize a phacoemulsification machine? a. Neurosurgery b. Maxillofacial c. Opthalmology d. Otorhinolaryngology c. Opthalmology 75. Which of the following lasers would be contraindicated for us in the posterior chamber of the eye? a. Argon b. Excimer c. Ho:YAG d. Carbon Dioxide d. Carbon Dioxide 76. In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent pacemaker placed? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Septum d. Aorta a. Right ventricle 77. For which of the following diagnoses would a patient require pancreaticojeunostomy? a. Gastroschisis b. Morbid obesity c. Neonatal jaundice d. Alcoholic pancreatitis d. Alcoholic pancreatitis 78. In which procedure would a bookwalter retractor be used? a. Cystectomy b. Nephrectomy c. Retropubic prostatectomy d. Transurethral prostatectomy c. Retropubic prostatectomy 79. Which cranial nerve is severed as a last resort treatment of meniere's disease? a. VII b. VIII c. IX d. X b. VIII 80. Brachytherapy is performed to treat a. Uterine prolapse b. Endometriosis c. Cervical cancer d. Menorrhagia c. Cervical cancer 81. Which procedure is performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia? a. Radial keratotomy b. Scleral buckling c. Keratoplasty d. Citrectomy a. Radial keratotomy 82. The facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base is a/an: a. Orbital floor b. Zygomatic c. LeFort I d. Fraontal sinus c. LeFort I 84. Where is the incision for a caldwell-luc procedure made? a. Canine fossa b. Frontal sinus c. Eyebrow d. Tear duct a. Canine fossa 85. The device used for real-time intraoperative assessment of blood flow is a/an: a. Caliper b. Doppler c. Pacemaker d. Manometer b. Doppler 87. A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food is: a. Anabolism b. Catabolism c. Metabolism d. Commensalism b. Catabolism 88. Which structure of the ear is responsible for equilibrium? a. Semcircular canals b. Cranial nerve V c. Labyrinth d. Cochlea a. Semcircular canals 89. The first step of urine production when fluids are dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called: a. Tubular secretion b. Tubular reabsorption c. Glomerula filtration d. Glomerular absorption c. Glomerula filtration 90. The adipose tissue overlying the symphysis is the: a. Labia majora b. Mons pubis c. Perineum d. Vestibule b. Mons pubis 91. The cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice is the : a. III b. V c. VII d. X d. X 92. Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense? a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth b. Second 93. When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner: a. Away from self b. Toward self c. To the right d. To the left a. Away from self 94. Which of the following is the least inert of the synthetic meshs? a. PTFE b. Polypropylene c. Polyester fiber d. Polyglactin 910 c. Polyester fiber 95. What radiopaque contrast medium is used intraoperatively when the patient is allergic to iodine? a. Isovue b. Renograffin c. Methylene blue d. Indigo carmine b. Renograffin 96. Which of the following legal terms would apply to a case when a non-english speaking patient signs a surgical informed consent in english, but down not fully understand it? a. Assault and battery b. Res ipsa loquitor c. Respondeat superior d. Negligence a. Assault and battery 97. Which of the following psychosocial factors is iportant for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients? a. Reliance on others b. Postoperative schedule c. Separation anxiety d. Appearance of scar c. Separation anxiety 98. What is the surgical technologist's role during the transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher? a. Completes counts and signs the OR record b. Maintains sterility and integrity of back table c. Begins breakdown of sterile setup after drapes removed d. Does not remove sterile attire, but aids in patient transfer b. Maintains sterility and integrity of back table 99. When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following? a. Biohazardous bag b. Mesh-bottomed flash pan c. Bain with sterile saline d. Bain with sterile water d. Bain with sterile water 100. How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degree F? a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 a. 3 101. What is the recommended method of hair removal from an operative site? a. Wet shave with disposable razor b. Cream depilatory two days pre-op c. Clippers with disposable heads d. Dry shave with straight razor and tape c. Clippers with disposable heads 102. Which of the following must be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission? a. Incident report b. Advance directive c. insurance authorization d. History and physical d. History and physical 103. An identification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon admission to the: a. Facility b. Nursing unit c. Pre-op care unit d. Surgery department a. Facility Show 422 more Add or remove terms You can also click on terms or definitions to blur or reveal them