PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE HESI LATEST
EXAM 2025 WITH MULTIPLE CHOICE OF
QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLVED
SOLUTIONS ALREADY GRADED A+ AND 100%
GUARANTEE PASS (JUST RELEASED!!!!!)
A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to
inquire about a possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5
days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a
white discharge. The nurse should discuss which action with
the client? - CORRECT ANSWER-Discontinue the antibiotic because
original symptoms have subsided.
Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms
subside.
Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for
this effect. Correct
Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the
secretions.
A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during
antibiotic therapy. If suspected, the new onset of findings
should be reported to the healthcare provider for another
prescribed treatment to treat the superinfection.
,The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients
when a client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma
attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2
receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse
expect? - CORRECT ANSWER-Tachycardia.
Increased blood pressure.
Rapid resolution of wheezing. Correct
Improved pulse oximetry values. Correct
Reduce fever airway inflammation.
Beta 2 receptor agonist agents should provide immediate return
of airflow and resolve wheezing and improve oxygenation.
A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68
mmHg, displaying a sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58
beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Which action should
the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER-Lower the head of the bed and
assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes.
Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the
client. Correct
Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.
,Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Since the client's blood pressure is within normal limits, and
the pulse is above 50 beats/min with a first degree block, the
medication can be administered. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that
slows the heart rate and lowers the blood pressure; this drug is
generally held if the heart rate is less than 50 beats/min or the
client exhibits dizziness related to hypotension.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an
angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with
hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's
laboratory results and notes that the client's serum potassium
level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? -
CORRECT ANSWER-Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
Check the client's apical pulse.
Notify the healthcare provider.
Repeat the serum potassium level.
The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar
because the client is hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5
mEq/l). Although hypokalemia is usually associated with
diuretic therapy in heart failure, hyperkalemia is associated
with several heart failure medications, including ARBs. Because
hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse
, should check the apical pulse for rate and rhythm, and blood
pressure.
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with
acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of
medications. In which order should the nurse administer the
prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) - CORRECT
ANSWER-Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory
event, so albuterol, a beta2 adrenergic agonist and short acting
bronchodilator, should be administered by inhalation first to
provide rapid and deep topical penetration to relieve
bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and increase
oxygenation. In stepwise management of persistent asthma, a
long-action bronchodilator, such as salmeterol (Serevent
Diskus), with a 12-hour duration of action should be given next.
Prednisone, an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-
inflammatory effects and should be given after the client's
respiratory distress begins to resolves. Gentamicin, an
antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be painful, and may
require repositioning the client, so should be last in the
sequence.
EXAM 2025 WITH MULTIPLE CHOICE OF
QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLVED
SOLUTIONS ALREADY GRADED A+ AND 100%
GUARANTEE PASS (JUST RELEASED!!!!!)
A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to
inquire about a possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5
days. She reports having vaginal discomfort, itching, and a
white discharge. The nurse should discuss which action with
the client? - CORRECT ANSWER-Discontinue the antibiotic because
original symptoms have subsided.
Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms
subside.
Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for
this effect. Correct
Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the
secretions.
A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during
antibiotic therapy. If suspected, the new onset of findings
should be reported to the healthcare provider for another
prescribed treatment to treat the superinfection.
,The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients
when a client begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma
attack. The nurse administers a PRN prescription for a Beta 2
receptor agonist agent. Which client response should the nurse
expect? - CORRECT ANSWER-Tachycardia.
Increased blood pressure.
Rapid resolution of wheezing. Correct
Improved pulse oximetry values. Correct
Reduce fever airway inflammation.
Beta 2 receptor agonist agents should provide immediate return
of airflow and resolve wheezing and improve oxygenation.
A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68
mmHg, displaying a sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58
beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24. Which action should
the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER-Lower the head of the bed and
assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes.
Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the
client. Correct
Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.
,Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
Since the client's blood pressure is within normal limits, and
the pulse is above 50 beats/min with a first degree block, the
medication can be administered. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that
slows the heart rate and lowers the blood pressure; this drug is
generally held if the heart rate is less than 50 beats/min or the
client exhibits dizziness related to hypotension.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an
angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with
hypertension and heart failure. The nurse reviews the client's
laboratory results and notes that the client's serum potassium
level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? -
CORRECT ANSWER-Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
Check the client's apical pulse.
Notify the healthcare provider.
Repeat the serum potassium level.
The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar
because the client is hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5
mEq/l). Although hypokalemia is usually associated with
diuretic therapy in heart failure, hyperkalemia is associated
with several heart failure medications, including ARBs. Because
hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse
, should check the apical pulse for rate and rhythm, and blood
pressure.
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with
acute status asthmaticus is prescribed this series of
medications. In which order should the nurse administer the
prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) - CORRECT
ANSWER-Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory
event, so albuterol, a beta2 adrenergic agonist and short acting
bronchodilator, should be administered by inhalation first to
provide rapid and deep topical penetration to relieve
bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and increase
oxygenation. In stepwise management of persistent asthma, a
long-action bronchodilator, such as salmeterol (Serevent
Diskus), with a 12-hour duration of action should be given next.
Prednisone, an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-
inflammatory effects and should be given after the client's
respiratory distress begins to resolves. Gentamicin, an
antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be painful, and may
require repositioning the client, so should be last in the
sequence.
