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Advanced Physical Assessment Exam 2 (NP Assessment) – Chamberlain College of Nursing (2025/2026 Edition) – Real Exam Questions with Complete Verified Solutions

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This document includes real exam questions and expert-verified solutions for Advanced Physical Assessment Exam 2 in the Nurse Practitioner program at Chamberlain College of Nursing. Topics covered include diagnostic reasoning, objective data collection, physical examination techniques, and clinical interpretation skills. All answers are accompanied by detailed explanations to support deep understanding and effective exam preparation.

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2025/2026
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Advanced Physical Assessment Exam 2 (NP
Assessment) | Chamberlain College Nursing |
2025/2026 Edition | Real Exam Questions with
Complete Verified Solutions​
Chamberlain College of Nursing – NP Advanced Physical Assessment Exam 2 | Exam-Focused
Q&A, Objective Data Collection, Diagnostic Reasoning, Clinical Examination Techniques |
Expert-verified with Detailed Solutions




Introduction​
This comprehensive question-and-answer package includes the full set of Advanced Physical
Assessment Exam 2 items from Chamberlain College of Nursing (NP Assessment level), updated
for the 2025/2026 academic cycle. Questions reflect real exam content and cover advanced
physical exam skills across multiple systems—cardiovascular, pulmonary, neurologic,
abdominal, musculoskeletal, and more. Each item includes a 100% verified correct answer with
a complete clinical solution, reasoning, and key examination findings.

Answer Format​
All correct responses are clearly marked in bold and green, followed by a structured
explanation that integrates diagnostic cues, examination rationale, and focused clinical
interpretation.



Question 1​
What is the primary method to assess jugular vein distension (JVD)?​
A) Palpation​
B) Percussion​
C) Inspection at 45-degree angle​
D) Auscultation​
C) Inspection at 45-degree angle​
Explanation: JVD is best assessed by visual inspection with the patient at a 45-degree angle,
allowing the jugular veins to be observed for distension, which indicates elevated right atrial
pressure or heart failure.

Question 2​
Which finding is most indicative of a diastolic murmur?​
A) Heard during systole​
B) Heard after S2​
C) Associated with a thrill​
D) Heard best at the apex​

,B) Heard after S2​
Explanation: A diastolic murmur occurs after the second heart sound (S2) during ventricular
relaxation, often linked to conditions like aortic or mitral regurgitation.

Question 3​
What technique is used to evaluate lung resonance?​
A) Auscultation​
B) Percussion​
C) Palpation​
D) Inspection​
B) Percussion​
Explanation: Percussion over the lung fields produces resonant sounds in healthy lungs, with
dullness indicating consolidation or fluid, aiding in diagnosing conditions like pneumonia.

Question 4​
Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing extraocular movements?​
A) II (Optic)​
B) III, IV, VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens)​
C) V (Trigeminal)​
D) VII (Facial)​
B) III, IV, VI (Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens)​
Explanation: These cranial nerves control eye movements; testing involves observing smooth
tracking and alignment to detect palsies or nystagmus.

Question 5​
What is a key sign of appendicitis during abdominal assessment?​
A) Hyperactive bowel sounds​
B) Rebound tenderness​
C) Tympany on percussion​
D) Soft abdomen​
B) Rebound tenderness​
Explanation: Rebound tenderness, elicited by pressing and releasing the abdomen, suggests
peritoneal irritation, a hallmark of appendicitis.

Question 6​
Which finding on musculoskeletal exam suggests a rotator cuff injury?​
A) Full range of motion​
B) Positive drop arm test​
C) Normal shoulder contour​
D) Symmetrical strength​
B) Positive drop arm test​
Explanation: A positive drop arm test, where the arm cannot be held abducted, indicates
rotator cuff tear or weakness, often due to supraspinatus involvement.

Question 7​
What is the normal range for respiratory rate in an adult at rest?​
A) 10-15 breaths per minute​

, B) 12-20 breaths per minute​
C) 20-25 breaths per minute​
D) 25-30 breaths per minute​
B) 12-20 breaths per minute​
Explanation: A normal resting respiratory rate of 12-20 breaths per minute reflects adequate
ventilation; deviations may indicate respiratory distress.

Question 8​
Which technique assesses for fluid in the knee joint?​
A) Ballottement​
B) Auscultation​
C) Percussion​
D) Inspection​
A) Ballottement​
Explanation: Ballottement, or the patellar tap test, detects knee effusion by tapping the patella
to feel fluid displacement, indicating joint inflammation or injury.

Question 9​
What finding on neurologic exam suggests upper motor neuron damage?​
A) Hyporeflexia​
B) Positive Babinski sign​
C) Muscle atrophy​
D) Decreased tone​
B) Positive Babinski sign​
Explanation: A positive Babinski sign (upward toe movement) indicates upper motor neuron
lesion, contrasting with the normal flexor response.

Question 10​
Which heart sound is best heard at the lower left sternal border?​
A) S1​
B) S2​
C) S3​
D) S4​
C) S3​
Explanation: The S3 gallop, associated with ventricular filling, is best heard at the lower left
sternal border and may indicate heart failure in adults.

Question 11​
What is a normal finding when palpating the thyroid gland?​
A) Nodularity​
B) Smooth and non-tender​
C) Visible enlargement​
D) Bruit​
B) Smooth and non-tender​
Explanation: A normal thyroid is smooth, non-tender, and not palpable unless enlarged;
nodularity or bruit suggests pathology like goiter or hyperthyroidism.
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