Certified Rehabilitation Registered Nurse
(CRRN) Full Practice Exam 2025| 180
MCQs with Answers and Explanations
1. The INITIAL purpose of stump wrapping is to:
A) Prevent infection
B) Aid in venous return and reduce swelling
C) Promote muscle strengthening
D) Improve prosthetic fitting
Correct Answer: B) Aid in venous return and reduce swelling
Explanation: Stump wrapping helps control edema by promoting venous return,
which is crucial in the early postoperative phase.
2. What is an important travel tip for people with COPD?
A) Avoid all air travel
B) Avoid elevation above 4000 feet unless in a pressurized cabin
C) Use supplemental oxygen at all times
D) Limit travel to short distances
Correct Answer: B) Avoid elevation above 4000 feet unless in a pressurized cabin
Explanation: High altitudes can worsen hypoxia in COPD patients due to lower
oxygen levels; pressurized cabins help maintain safe oxygen levels.
3. What produces esophageal speech?
A) Using the tongue to shape sounds
B) Burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
C) Vibrating the vocal cords artificially
D) Whispering with exaggerated mouth movements
Correct Answer: B) Burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
Explanation: Esophageal speech involves swallowing air and releasing it in a
controlled manner to create sound vibrations.
,4. What is not included in a patient's occupational history?
A) Job-related exposures
B) Work schedule and physical demands
C) Past learning difficulties
D) Previous workplace injuries
Correct Answer: C) Past learning difficulties
Explanation: Occupational history focuses on work-related factors, not educational
challenges.
5. Blindness of the nasal half of one eye and the temporal half of the other is
known as:
A) Diplopia
B) Homonymous hemianopsia
C) Scotoma
D) Nystagmus
Correct Answer: B) Homonymous hemianopsia
Explanation: This condition results from damage to the optic tract, affecting
corresponding visual fields in both eyes.
6. The terms "perceived susceptibility," "perceived threat," and "cues to
action" are important concepts in which nursing theory?
A) Health Belief Model
B) Orem’s Self-Care Theory
C) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
D) Roy’s Adaptation Model
Correct Answer: A) Health Belief Model
Explanation: The Health Belief Model explains health behaviors based on perceived
risks and benefits.
7. What bladder disorder will MOST likely be present in a patient with a
CVA?
,A) Reflex neurogenic bladder
B) Uninhibited neurogenic bladder
C) Flaccid bladder
D) Overflow incontinence
Correct Answer: B) Uninhibited neurogenic bladder
Explanation: A CVA often disrupts cortical inhibition, leading to involuntary bladder
contractions.
8. What is the legal definition of blindness?
A) Complete absence of vision
B) Visual field restriction of up to 20 degrees or central visual acuity in the better eye of
no more than 20/200
C) Inability to distinguish colors
D) Loss of peripheral vision only
Correct Answer: B) Visual field restriction of up to 20 degrees or central visual acuity
in the better eye of no more than 20/200
Explanation: Legal blindness is defined by specific acuity and visual field criteria.
9. Pursed lip breathing improves oxygenation because it:
A) Increases respiratory rate
B) Keeps the alveoli open longer
C) Strengthens diaphragm muscles
D) Reduces mucus production
Correct Answer: B) Keeps the alveoli open longer
Explanation: It creates backpressure, preventing alveolar collapse and improving gas
exchange.
10. What is a result of injury to the satiety center?
A) Anorexia
B) Overeating
, C) Nausea
D) Rapid weight loss
Correct Answer: B) Overeating
Explanation: The satiety center (in the hypothalamus) regulates hunger; damage can
lead to hyperphagia.
11. Tardive dyskinesia, associated with the prolonged use of psychotropic
drugs, may be assessed by instructing the patient to:
A) Walk in a straight line
B) Grimace, smile, frown, pucker, and chew
C) Recite the alphabet backwards
D) Touch their nose with eyes closed
Correct Answer: B) Grimace, smile, frown, pucker, and chew
Explanation: These facial movements help assess involuntary muscle movements
characteristic of tardive dyskinesia.
12. With normal capillary perfusion, the color will return within:
A) 1 second
B) 3 seconds
C) 5 seconds
D) 10 seconds
Correct Answer: B) 3 seconds
Explanation: Normal capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds, indicating adequate
peripheral perfusion.
13. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a pt. experiencing
physiological and/or psychosocial disturbances who has recently been
transferred from one environment to another?
A) Limit visitors to reduce stimulation
B) Encourage pt's verbalization of feelings
C) Keep lights dimmed at all times
D) Restrict mobility until adjustment occurs
(CRRN) Full Practice Exam 2025| 180
MCQs with Answers and Explanations
1. The INITIAL purpose of stump wrapping is to:
A) Prevent infection
B) Aid in venous return and reduce swelling
C) Promote muscle strengthening
D) Improve prosthetic fitting
Correct Answer: B) Aid in venous return and reduce swelling
Explanation: Stump wrapping helps control edema by promoting venous return,
which is crucial in the early postoperative phase.
2. What is an important travel tip for people with COPD?
A) Avoid all air travel
B) Avoid elevation above 4000 feet unless in a pressurized cabin
C) Use supplemental oxygen at all times
D) Limit travel to short distances
Correct Answer: B) Avoid elevation above 4000 feet unless in a pressurized cabin
Explanation: High altitudes can worsen hypoxia in COPD patients due to lower
oxygen levels; pressurized cabins help maintain safe oxygen levels.
3. What produces esophageal speech?
A) Using the tongue to shape sounds
B) Burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
C) Vibrating the vocal cords artificially
D) Whispering with exaggerated mouth movements
Correct Answer: B) Burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
Explanation: Esophageal speech involves swallowing air and releasing it in a
controlled manner to create sound vibrations.
,4. What is not included in a patient's occupational history?
A) Job-related exposures
B) Work schedule and physical demands
C) Past learning difficulties
D) Previous workplace injuries
Correct Answer: C) Past learning difficulties
Explanation: Occupational history focuses on work-related factors, not educational
challenges.
5. Blindness of the nasal half of one eye and the temporal half of the other is
known as:
A) Diplopia
B) Homonymous hemianopsia
C) Scotoma
D) Nystagmus
Correct Answer: B) Homonymous hemianopsia
Explanation: This condition results from damage to the optic tract, affecting
corresponding visual fields in both eyes.
6. The terms "perceived susceptibility," "perceived threat," and "cues to
action" are important concepts in which nursing theory?
A) Health Belief Model
B) Orem’s Self-Care Theory
C) Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
D) Roy’s Adaptation Model
Correct Answer: A) Health Belief Model
Explanation: The Health Belief Model explains health behaviors based on perceived
risks and benefits.
7. What bladder disorder will MOST likely be present in a patient with a
CVA?
,A) Reflex neurogenic bladder
B) Uninhibited neurogenic bladder
C) Flaccid bladder
D) Overflow incontinence
Correct Answer: B) Uninhibited neurogenic bladder
Explanation: A CVA often disrupts cortical inhibition, leading to involuntary bladder
contractions.
8. What is the legal definition of blindness?
A) Complete absence of vision
B) Visual field restriction of up to 20 degrees or central visual acuity in the better eye of
no more than 20/200
C) Inability to distinguish colors
D) Loss of peripheral vision only
Correct Answer: B) Visual field restriction of up to 20 degrees or central visual acuity
in the better eye of no more than 20/200
Explanation: Legal blindness is defined by specific acuity and visual field criteria.
9. Pursed lip breathing improves oxygenation because it:
A) Increases respiratory rate
B) Keeps the alveoli open longer
C) Strengthens diaphragm muscles
D) Reduces mucus production
Correct Answer: B) Keeps the alveoli open longer
Explanation: It creates backpressure, preventing alveolar collapse and improving gas
exchange.
10. What is a result of injury to the satiety center?
A) Anorexia
B) Overeating
, C) Nausea
D) Rapid weight loss
Correct Answer: B) Overeating
Explanation: The satiety center (in the hypothalamus) regulates hunger; damage can
lead to hyperphagia.
11. Tardive dyskinesia, associated with the prolonged use of psychotropic
drugs, may be assessed by instructing the patient to:
A) Walk in a straight line
B) Grimace, smile, frown, pucker, and chew
C) Recite the alphabet backwards
D) Touch their nose with eyes closed
Correct Answer: B) Grimace, smile, frown, pucker, and chew
Explanation: These facial movements help assess involuntary muscle movements
characteristic of tardive dyskinesia.
12. With normal capillary perfusion, the color will return within:
A) 1 second
B) 3 seconds
C) 5 seconds
D) 10 seconds
Correct Answer: B) 3 seconds
Explanation: Normal capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds, indicating adequate
peripheral perfusion.
13. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for a pt. experiencing
physiological and/or psychosocial disturbances who has recently been
transferred from one environment to another?
A) Limit visitors to reduce stimulation
B) Encourage pt's verbalization of feelings
C) Keep lights dimmed at all times
D) Restrict mobility until adjustment occurs
