WGU D236 Patho PA (100 OUT OF 100) Questions and Answers (Latest Update) NEW

D236 Patho PA Q&A 1. What are two components that are evaluated as part of the arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis? Renin and Angiotensin Atrial natriuretic peptides (ANP) and plasma osmolality Blood pH and partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PCO2) Hydrostatic and oncotic pressure 2. A patient presented with acute inflammation on both arms after camping. Which type of organism is indicated as a contributor to this reaction? Insect Fungus Parasite Bacteria 3. What are two signs of patients who experience a near drowning? Choose 2 answers Headache Hypoxemia Hypoventilation Asphyxiation 4. Which process does the body use to protect itself from disease? Syncope Phagocytosis Hypoxemia Tachycardia 5. A patient was diagnosed with stage 2 Lyme disease. Which two responses can the body have in response to this disease? Choose 2 answers Kidney failure Checkmark Meningitis Nerve damage Blindness 6. A patient presents with anemia, jaundice, fever, and malaise due to destruction of red blood cells. Which infectious disease does this describe? H1N1 flu Lyme disease West Nile virus Malaria 7. Which infection invades and replicates in T4 lymphocyte cells, leaving the body open to opportunistic infections? Influenza Sepsis MRSA HIV 8. What are helper cells? Special T cells that bind to infected body cells B cells or T cells prior to being exposed to an antigen Special T cells that produce small proteins called cytokines B cells or T cells that have become specialized to bind to certain antigens 9. What are two things that antibodies do as part of the immune system? Choose 2 answers. Antibodies change memory cells into B cells. Antibodies destroy phagocytic cells. Antibodies enhance the action of the phagocytic cells. Antibodies recruit the complement system. Antibodies increase blood flow to the immune system. Antibodies create naïve T cells. 10.What are the possible child outcomes for hemophilia, an X-linked genetic disorder, if one parent is XhX and the other is XY? XhXh, XhX, XhY, XY XhX, XhY XX, XY, XhX, XhY XX, XY 11.What is one assessment finding of Neurobehavioral Disorder Associated with Prenatal Alcohol Exposure (ND-PAE)? Epicanthic eye fold Agenesis of the corpus callosum Red blood cells shaped like crescent moons Slanted eyes 12.What is one variation of Down syndrome? Turner's syndrome Mosaicism Missing chromosome 21 altogether Neurobehavioral disorder associated with prenatal alcohol exposure (ND-PAE) 13.A patient presented with swelling of the femur. MRI results indicated enlargement and thickening of the bone. The urinalysis showed hydroxyproline. The patient was prescribed NSAIDs and physical therapy, and surgery was recommended. Which disease does this describe? Degenerative joint disease Neuromuscular disease Idiopathic disease Paget disease 14.A radiologist report shows a patient’s standing AP and lateral views of the entire spine demonstrate an arcuate thoracolumbar with a rightward convexity. Based on these findings, which condition is indicated? Scoliosis Osteoporosis Kyphosis Lordosis 15.A patient’s condition is characterized by a thick, hard patch on the heel of the foot. The patch is painful when the patient walks. Upon examination of the area, the physician determines removal via cryosurgery would be appropriate. Which condition is described in this scenario? Carbuncle Corn Plantar warts Keratosis pilaris 16.Match each set of signs and symptoms with its corresponding disorder. Answer options may be used more than once or not at all. Select your answer form the dropdown list. Involuntary muscle contractions, atrophy, and twitching Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Abnormally slow movements, progressively rigid extremities, and tremors Parkinson disease Sudden and transient motor and sensory disturbances Multiple sclerosis Memory changes that disrupt daily living Alzheimer disease 17.What is a common first symptom of glaucoma? Halos around lights Peripheral shadow Floaters Photopsia 18.Which condition is caused by degeneration of the nerves that carry impulses to and from the brain and spinal cord, causing loss of sensation, pain, and inability to control muscles? Bell palsy Quadriplegia Peripheral neuropathy Alzheimer disease 19.What disorder of vision is characterized by pressure on the optic nerve from elevated intraocular pressure (IOP)? Diabetic retinopathy Cataracts Glaucoma Age-related macular degeneration 20.Which two complications are associated with acute otitis media? Meningitis and cerumen impaction Dyskinesia and blurred visions Infection of the temporal bone and mastoid process Cholesteatoma and weight loss 21.What are two predisposing factors to deep venous thromboembolism? Choose 2 answers. Venous stasis Excess alcohol consumption Menorrhagia Familial hypercholesterolemia Liddle syndrome Hypercoagulability 22.A patient has local dilation of a blood vessel with weakening of its walls. Which condition does this describe? Thrombophlebitis Aneurysm Varicose vein Atherosclerosis 23.What are symptoms of aplastic anemia? Hair loss and bradycardia Restlessness and jugular vein distention Afebrile and slurred speech Fatigue and Menorrhagia 24.Which condition occurs when a blood clot blocks blood flow to the heart and damages the heart muscle due to lack of oxygen? Angina pectoris Myocardial infarction Heart dysrhythmia Atherosclerosis 25.A patient’s record indicates a condition that is being treated with lifelong use of vitamin B12 injections. This condition is caused by the failure of cells in the gastric mucosa to secrete adequate levels of protein. Which condition is described? Folic acid deficiency anemia Pernicious anemia Iron-deficiency anemia Blood-loss anemia 26.Which type of anemia is the result of injury or destruction of the blood-forming tissue in bone marrow? Folic acid anemia Aplastic anemia Pernicious anemia Iron deficiency anemia 27.A patient has a history of rheumatic fever and hypothyroidism. The patient currently has clammy skin, as well as low blood pressure. During examination, the patient experiences a sharp, sudden pleuritic pain when taking deep breaths. Which condition does this describe? Angina pectoris Stenosis Unstable angina Pericarditis 28.A patient presents with weakness and fatigue and reports sweating profusely at night for three weeks. On the physical exam, several teeth appear to be in various stages of decay. A follow-up with a dentist is recommended. On the chest auscultation, a loud heart murmur is heard. The patient has no history of heart disease. Which condition is indicated by this description? Mitral stenosis Angina pectoris Atrial fibrillation Endocarditis 29.A 52-year-old patient presents with palpitation, edema, and tachypnea. This patient also has chronic conditions, including hypertension and CAD. The patient has a history of smoking and myocardial infarction. The patient is placed on a digoxin drip and a lowsodium diet. Which condition is being described? Valvular heart disease Pericarditis Congestive heart failure Endocarditis 30.What risk factors are associated with lymphoma? High-sodium diet and sedentary lifestyle Under the age of 30 years and hyperactivity Influenza infection and dehydration Radiation exposure and Immunosuppressive therapy 31.What are symptoms of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)? Warmth over veins and muscle spasm Anxiety and weight gain Koilonychia and muscle spasm Fatigue and fever 32.Which two conditions affect the lower respiratory tract? Choose 2 answers Asthma Epiglottitis Pneumonia Infectious mononucleosis 33.What is a symptom of sudden onset of a pulmonary embolism? Hypotension Nausea and vomiting Confusion Cough 34.A patient’s lung X-ray shows lesions of calcified inflamed granular tissue. Biopsy shows necrosis of lung tissue. Which disease does this patient have? Chronic asthma Bronchiectasis Pulmonary tuberculosis Silicosis 35.Which three areas should a patient with a GI disorder be questioned about? Choose 3 answers. Swallowing Indigestion Eructation Respiration Exercise routine Blood type 36.A patient reports an upper right quadrant abdominal pain that radiates to the back and shoulder. Additionally, the patient is complaining of nausea, vomiting, and heartburn. Which disorder is described? Peptic ulcers Crohn disease Cholelithiasis Hiatal hernia 37.What is an example of intestinal motility disorder? Dehydration Cholecystitis Hernia An obstructive lesion 38.A female patient presents with complaints of irregular periods, weakness, emotional changes, and easy bruising. The patient has previously been diagnosed with asthma. Upon physical examination, the patient has a “moon-shaped” face and a noticeable hump on her upper back. Further, there are purple striae on both arms. Blood work reveals elevated concentrations of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). Which condition is this patient showing signs and symptoms of? Addison disease Hashimoto thyroiditis Graves’ disease Cushing syndrome 39.Which factor increases a woman's risk for UTIs? Pain medication misuse Smoking High level of physical activity Diabetes 40.What finding indicates the need for the implementation of continuous renal replacement therapy? Hydronephrosis Electrolyte abnormalities Costovertebral tenderness Urosepsis 41.Which tool is often helpful in diagnosing renal cell cancer? Blood chemistry Pulmonary function test Cryoglobulin titer Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (ANCA) titer 42.A patient has symptoms of lethargy, oliguria, and itchy and dry skin. The patient also has chronic conditions including hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and coronary artery disease. Blood workup shows a drastic decrease in hemoglobin and hematocrit. Which condition is described? Polycystic kidney disease Hypertensive kidney disease Renal cell carcinoma End-stage renal disease 43.What is a risk factor for prostate cancer? Family history Hormone replacement therapy High antioxidant intake High lycopene intake 44.A patient with an autoimmune disorder has symptoms of dyspnea, fever, and sweating. The physical examination shows a swollen lymph gland. Lymph node biopsy results are positive for malignant transformation of lymphocytes. Which condition is described? Pseudolymphoma Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Lymphoid hyperplasia Lymphedema 45.A 40-year-old patient’s record of a routine checkup notes a lump that has doubled in size on the leg. A biopsy reveals the lump is a tumor that has not infiltrated the surrounding tissue.Which type of tumor is indicated in this patient’s chart? Melanoma Benign Malignant Anaplastic 46.Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is common for men who have sex wth men (MSM)? Trichomoniasis Pelvic inflammatory disease Herpes Genital warts 47.What is the distinctive characteristic of oligospermia? The early development of secondary sex characteristics An abnormal curvature of the penis An abnormally low volume of sperm in ejaculate The absence of sperm in ejaculate 48.What prostate cancer treatment recommendation is used in high-risk cases? Active surveillance Oral antibiotics Orchiectomy Radical prostatectomy 49.A 55-year-old male patient is diagnosed with prostatic cancer, which has spread to the spinal cord. Which treatment can the physician recommend? Retroperitoneal node dissection Cryoablation Myomectomy Salpingo oophorectomy 50.A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with testicular cancer. The patient has a tender, painful mass in the left testis. The physician recommends surgery. Which treatment was recommended? Prostatectomy Thermotherapy Orchidectomy Cryoablation Powered by TCPDF ()