BIO 250 | Microbiology Final Exam Questions and Answers (Graded A+ 2023) Straighterline  This document is meant to be a pre-emptive study tool only. It is comprised of 5 past midterm exams. Questions on current exams are likely different. Use this BEFORE

BIO 250 | Microbiology Final Exam Questions and Answers (Graded A+ 2023) Straighterline  This document is meant to be a pre-emptive study tool only. It is comprised of 5 past midterm exams. Questions on current exams are likely different. Use this BEFORE (of course not during!) the exam to study practice questions that may be similar or cover topics on the new exams, and to understand the depth of material covered so you can study better and be more prepared! 1. An irregular cluster of spherical cells would be called a/an a. Palisades b. Sarcina c. Staphylococcus d. Streptococcus e. Spirilla 2. The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is a. Hypersensitivity b. Epidemiology c. Immunology d. Morbidity e. Geomicrobiology 3. What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 18 e. 32 4. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called a. Facilitated diffusion b. Diffusion c. Active transport d. Osmosis e. Endocytosis 5. Viral tissue specificities are called a. Ranges b. Virions c. Receptacles d. Tropisms e. Uncoating 6. The periplasmic space is a. Larger in gram positive bacteria b. Made up of lipopolysaccharides and phospholipids c. An important reaction site for substances entering and leaving the cell d. Where peptidoglycan is located e. Absent in gram negative bacteria 7. The scientist/s that proposed that organisms be assigned to one of 3 domains is/are a. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur b. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek c. Carl Woese and George Fox d. Robert Whittaker e. Francesco Redi 8. For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective? a. Salmonella b. Streptococcus c. Neisseria d. Staphylococcus e. Escherichia 9. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? a. In kingdom Protista b. Parasitic worms c. Eggs and sperm used for reproduction d. Often alternate hosts in complex life cycles e. Have various organ systems 10. All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except a. Gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane b. Gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane c. Contain special virus proteins d. Help the virus particle attach to host cells e. Located between the capsid and nucleic acid 11. Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except a. Type of nucleic acid b. Type of capsid c. Presence of an envelope d. Biochemical reactions e. Number of strands in the nucleic acid 12. Helminths are a. Bacteria b. Protozoa c. Molds d. Parasitic worms e. Infectious particles 13. When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called a. Bioremediation b. Genetic engineering c. Epidemiology d. Immunology e. Taxonomy 14. What chemical causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome c oxidase? a. Copper b. Iron c. Cyanide d. Oxygen e. Carbon monoxide 15. The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's a. Ribosomes b. Inclusions c. Cell wall d. Cell membrane e. Flagella 16. A fat is called if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2 hydrogens. a. Unsaturated b. Polyunsaturated c. Monounsaturated d. Saturated e. None of the choices are correct 17. The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules are a. Prostaglandins b. Waxes c. Phospholipids d. Steroids e. Triglycerides 18. Which type of microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image? a. Bright-field b. Dark-field c. Phase-contrast d. Fluorescence e. Electron 19. A confocal scanning optical microscope a. Uses ultraviolet light to form a specimen image b. Shows three-dimensional cell images from the cell surface to the middle of the cell c. Produces specimen images on electron micrographs d. Uses dyes that emit visible light when bombarded by ultraviolet rays e. Requires specimens to be stained 20. Which of the following is found in eukaryotic cells but not in prokaryotic cells? a. Nucleus b. Mitochondria c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Lysosomes e. All of the choices are correct 21. A type of cofactor would be a. Vitamins b. Metallic ions c. Active sites d. Substrates e. Ribozymes 22. The term chemotroph refers to an organism that a. Uses CO2 for its carbon source b. Must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs c. Gets energy from sunlight d. Gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds e. Does not need a carbon source 23. Polar molecules a. Have an equal charge distribution b. Have an unequal charge distribution c. Are insoluble in water d. Always contain carbon e. Always involve oxygen 24. The basal body of a flagellum in gram-positive bacteria is anchored into the a. Hook b. Outer membrane c. Cell wall d. Peptidoglycan layer e. Cell membrane 25. A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a a. Point mutation b. Silent mutation c. Back mutation d. Missense mutation e. Nonsense mutation 26. When the product of reaction A becomes the reactant of reaction B, the metabolic pathway is a. Linear b. Bi-directional c. Convergent d. Cyclic e. Divergent 27. Cells grown in culture form a(n) a. Monolayer b. Bilayer c. Aggregate d. Plaque e. None of the choices are correct 28. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is a. Blood agar b. Trypticase soy agar c. Mannitol salt agar d. MacConkey medium e. A reducing medium 29. An organism that can use gaseous oxygen in metabolism and has the enzymes to process toxic oxygen products is a/an a. Aerobe b. Obligate aerobe c. Facultative anaerobe d. Microaerophile e. Obligate anaerobe 30. Which of the following is not a division of Kingdom Prokaryote according to Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology? a. Gracilicutes b. Scotobacteria c. Firmicutes d. Tenericutes e. Mendosicutes 31. Each NADH that enters the electron transport system gives rise to ATP. a. 2 b. 3 c. 24 d. 36 e. 38 32. Amoebic dysentery is most commonly contracted through the a. Fecal oral route from contaminated food or water b. Direct transmission from one host to another c. Puncture wounds d. Insect bites e. None of the choices are correct 33. Mediated transport of polar molecules and ions across the plasma membrane utilizes a that will bind to the substance effecting a conformational change that allows movement across the membrane. a. Protein carrier b. Lipid carrier c. Porin carrier d. All of the choices are correct 34. The number one worldwide infectious diseases are a. AIDS related diseases b. Diarrhea diseases c. Malaria diseases d. Measles e. Respiratory diseases 35. The most serious type of mutation is a a. Point mutation b. Silent mutation c. Frame shift mutation d. Back mutation e. All the choices are equally serious 36. Who invented the first crude microscope by grinding glass? a. Redi b. Lister c. Schultz & Schwann d. Leeuwenhoek 37. Covalent bonds a. Result from losing electrons b. Are always polar c. Are always non-polar d. Result from sharing electrons e. Result from gaining electrons 38. The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear a. His tones b. Chromatin c. Pores d. Endoplasmic reticulum e. Inclusions 39. The lactose repressor a. Is transcribed with the structural lac genes b. Is activated by binding lactose c. Is inactivated by binding lactose d. Requires lactose for its transcription e. None of the choices are correct 40. Which of the following is not a type of microRNA? a. tRNA b. miRNA c. Antisense d. Riboswitch e. siRNA 41. Comparing transmission electron microscopy with scanning electron microscopy, the following statement is true. a. Transmission EM requires dyes. b. Transmission EM gives detail of the external architecture of cells. c. Transmission EM is used for internal detail of cells and subcellular structures. d. Transmission EM can provide good images of bacteria but not viruses. 42. All of the following are polysaccharides except a. dextran in some bacterial slime layers. b. agar used to make solid culture media. c. a cell's glycocalyx. d. cellulose in certain cell walls. e. sterols in cell membranes. 43. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element bonded to other atoms. a. carbon b. nitrogen c. oxygen d. hydrogen e. phosphorous 44. The series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the . a. mitochondria b. lysosomes c. Golgi apparatus d. chloroplasts e. endoplasmic reticulum 45. A nutrient medium that contains at least one ingredient that is not chemically defined is termed . a. complex b. reducing c. enriched d. synthetic 46. Spirochetes are able to move due to . a. a periplasmic agellum b. a membrane-bound agellum c. cilia serving as walking feet d. pseudopods e. glycocalyx for gliding motility 47. After using jelly on a sandwich, you close the jar and place it on a room temperature shelf instead of in the refrigerator. When you open the jar several weeks later, you notice microbial growth on the surface. What type of organism is likely to grow in this environment? a. Bacteria b. Protozoa c. Fungus d. Virus 48. A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would nd it dicult to live in an environment with . a. carbon dioxide b. oxygen c. high salt d. temperatures above 37° C e. high acidity 49. Larval development of helminths occurs in which host? a. Primary host b. Intermediate host c. Definitive host d. Transport host e. Larval development takes place in all hosts. 50. Sulfa drugs like Bactrim, given for bacterial infections, inhibit bacteria by blocking folic acid synthesis. The precursor molecule of folic acid is para-amino benzoic acid (PABA). Interestingly, PABA has a structure very similar to a sulfa drug. If a sulfa drug is present, the bacterial enzyme will bind the sulfa drug because of structural similarity. This is an example of . Select one: a. enzyme induction b. enzyme repression c. noncompetitive inhibition d. competitive inhibition e. catabolite repression 51. Select that statement that reflects evidence that directly supports the endosymbiotic theory. a. Enzymes for photosynthesis are found embedded in membranes of the Golgi apparatus. b. Lysosomes contain their own DNA in the form of plasmids. c. The electron transport system is located in the cell membrane in bacteria, while in eukaryotes it is located in the mitochondrial cristae. d. Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of bacterial cells. 52. The division of microbes termed the Firmicutes have a cell wall type best described as . a. archaeal b. gram-negative c. gram-positive d. lacking a cell wall 53. When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed . a. pinocytosis b. phagocytosis c. facilitated transport d. facilitated diffusion e. exocytosis 54. Antiviral drugs are often difficult to develop, largely because a. viruses are obligate intracellular parasites so the drugs must enter the host cell and often cause toxic side effects in order to destroy the virus. b. viruses are much smaller than bacterial cells. c. viruses are more abundant in the body than bacterial cells. d. viruses are more pathogenic than bacterial cells. 55. Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino acid histidine, you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this result? a. The bacterium has turned its operon genes on, producing proteins necessary for growth. b. The chemical being tested is mutagenic. c. The bacterium does not have any plasmids, so it cannot grow on the medium. d. The drug being tested has no inhibitory effect on the bacterium; therefore, it is not a good antibiotic to give for treatment of disease. 56. The building blocks of an enzyme are . a. nucleotides b. glycerol and fatty acids c. monosaccharides d. phosphate, glycerol, and fatty acids e. amino acids 57. Lysozyme is most effective against . a. gram-negative organisms b. gram-positive organisms c. mycoplasmas d. cyanobacteria e. archaea 58. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that a. microbes are found on dust particles. b. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease. c. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms. d. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom. e. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills. 59. When a eukaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible, thread-like mass called . a. the nuclear envelope b. the nucleosome c. the nucleolus d. nucleoplasm e. chromatin 60. Viruses that cause infection resulting in alternating periods of activity with symptoms and inactivity without symptoms are called . a. b. oncogenic c. prions d. viroids e. delta agents 61. Eukaryotic cells are larger than bacterial or archaeal cells; all cells are larger than macromolecules. Where do viruses fit on this scale? a. Viruses are larger than eukaryotic cells. b. Viruses are smaller than eukaryotic cells, but larger than bacterial or archaeal cells. c. Viruses are smaller than bacterial or archaeal cells, but larger than macromolecules. d. Viruses are smaller than macromolecules. 62. The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes, a. catalase and hydrogen peroxidase. b. superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidase. c. superoxide dismutase and catalase. d. catalase and oxidase. e. superoxide dismutase and oxidase. 63. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right). a. Family, order, class b. Family, genus, species c. Genus, species, family d. Class, phylum, order e. Kingdom, domain, phylum 64. Which of the following bacterial structures is incorrectly matched with a function? a. Ribosomes - protein synthesis b. Inclusions - excess cell nutrients and materials c. Plasmids - contain genes essential for growth and metabolism d. Nucleoid - hereditary material e. Cytoplasm - dense, gelatinous solution 65. What is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony? a. Axenic b. Mixed c. Pure d. Both axenic and mixed are correct. e. Both axenic and pure are correct. 66. A diagram of the three domains (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) proceeding from the Last Universal Common Ancestor would show Archaea Select one: a. as the original cells from which the others derived. b. branching off the Domain Eukarya. c. branching off the Domain Bacteria. 67. The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called . a. transduction b. excision repair c. frameshift d. back-mutation e. transformation 68. Which pair is mismatched? a. Giardia - transmitted by feces in drinking water b. Histoplasma - causes Ohio Valley fever c. Trichomonas - sexually transmitted d. Plasmodium - causes Chagas disease e. Trypanosoma - causes African sleeping sickness 69. Two noncellular agents, smaller than viruses, are infectious proteins called and infectious RNA strands called . a. prions; capsomeres b. virions; prions c. viroids; phages d. prions; phages e. prions; viroids 70. When enzyme action stops due to a buildup of end product that acts as a regulatory molecule, this control is called . a. competitive inhibition b. enzyme induction c. enzyme repression d. noncompetitive inhibition 71. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except . a. broth b. enriched c. agar d. Petri dish e. semisolid 72. Caring for patients infected with a new virus requires safety precautions for medical personnel. Choosing appropriate procedures is an example of a(n) process. a. deductive b. inductive c. hypothetical d. pathogenic 73. What do the Gram stain, the acid-fast stain, and the endospore stain have in common? a. They are used on a wet mount of the specimen. b. They use heat to force the dye into cell structures. c. The staining outcome varies with the charge of the cell wall. d. They use a negative stain technique. e. They are differential stains. 74. Host cells of viruses include . a. humans and other animals b. plants and fungi c. bacteria d. protozoa and algae e. All of the choices are correct. 75. An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a(n) . a. extremophile b. thermophile c. psychrophile d. facultative psychrophile e. thermoduric microbe 76. During aerobic cellular respiration, the final electron acceptor is . a. pyruvic acid b. oxygen c. nitrate d. cytochrome C e. FAD 77. The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is . a. in mitochondria b. within the cell membrane c. in lysosomes d. in cytoplasm e. outside of the cell 78. Split genes a. are common in bacteria and eukaryotes. b. only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA. c. have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region. d. are acted upon by spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons. 79. Who is credited with developing and documenting the first vaccination procedure against smallpox? a. Koch b. Pasteur c. Jenner d. Lister 80. Cells with a relatively simple cell morphology that do not have a true membrane-delimited nucleus are called a. prokaryotes. b. eukaryotes. c. urkaryotes. d. nokaryotes. 81. If you forgot the decolorization step while performing a Gram stain, which outcome would you expect? a. Gram-positive bacteria would stain pink. b. Gram–negative bacteria would stain purple. c. Gram-negative bacteria would be unstained. d. Gram–positive bacteria would be unstained. 82. A wide variety of microorganisms are commercially used to manufacture for human consumption. a. vitamins b. sugars c. fatty acids d. none of the choices 83. Which of the following is not considered a micronutrient? a. Manganese (Mn) b. Magnesium (Mg) c. Zinc (Zn) d. Copper (Cu) 84. Which statement correctly explains the Gram stain reaction of archaeal cells? a. They are Gram-positive due to the pseudomurein layer in their cell walls. b. They are Gram-negative due to the lack of peptidoglycan in their cell walls. c. They don’t stain – basic dyes used in the Gram stain don’t adhere to archaeal cells. d. Some are Gram-positive and some are Gram-negative due to the diverse chemical structure. 85. You are working with a newly described microorganism that has flagella that are solid, 10 nm in diameter, and composed of more than one type of flagellin subunit. Based on the type of flagella, which type of organism is this? a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Protozoa d. Algae 86. Which type of membrane transport is most important for nutrient acquisition in nutrient poor environments? a. Simple diffusion b. Facilitated diffusion through channel proteins c. Facilitated diffusion through membrane carrier proteins d. Active transport 87. Which of the following has flagella that contain microtubules ? a. Archaea b. Bacteria c. Eukarya 88. The process by which a cell imports large particles by enclosing them in vesicles pinched off from the plasma membrane is called a. exocytosis. b. phagocytosis. c. pinocytosis. d. nutrient cytosis. 89. Some complex viruses have icosahedral symmetry in the head region and helical symmetry in the tail. Overall, these viruses are said to have symmetry. a. bilateral b. binal c. complex d. none of these 90. Viroids are of economic significance because they cause disease in a. plants. b. animals. c. humans. d. All of the choices are correct. 91. Which of the following is most similar between the cell cycle process of Sulfolobus and that of bacteria? a. The segregation of the chromosomes b. The cytokinesis process c. The timing of events during G1, S, and G2 92. A growth medium that distinguishes among different groups of bacteria on the basis of their biological characteristics is called a medium. a. selective b. differential c. enrichment d. transport 93. In bacterial and archaeal cells, the electron transport chain is located in the whereas in eukaryotic cells, the electron transport chain is located in the . a. inner mitochondrial membrane; outer mitochondrial membrane b. plasma membrane; outer mitochondrial membrane c. inner mitochondrial membrane; plasma membrane d. plasma membrane; mitochondrial matrix e. plasma membrane; inner mitochondrial membrane 94. In allosteric regulation, effector molecules usually bind a. reversibly and covalently. b. irreversibly and covalently. c. reversibly and noncovalently. d. irreversibly and noncovalently. 95. How does the phosphorylation of galactose differ from the phosphorylation of glucose, mannose, and fructose prior to catabolism? a. Phosphorylation of galactose requires NADPH to phosphorylate galactose-1- phosphate b. Phosphorylation of galactose requires PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate) to phosphorylate galactose-1-phosphate c. Phosphorylation of galactose requires ATP to phosphorylate galactose-1- phosphate d. Phosphorylation of galactose requires TTP to phosphorylate galactose-1- phosphate e. Phosphorylation of galactose requires UTP to phosphorylate galactose-1- phosphate 96. Because bacterial LPS is both hydrophilic and hydrophobic, a specialized transporting system, , is required for membrane transport and insertion. a. Lpt b. cytidine diphosphate carrier protein c. Tol d. acyl-carrier protein 97. The reduction of sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor during anaerobic respiration is called sulfate reduction. a. assimilatory b. dissimilatory c. amodulatory d. demodulatory 98. Each chromosome has one or more site(s) where replication begins. a. promoter b. replicon c. origin d. bifurcate 99. Why did scientists originally believe that proteins, rather than DNA, were the molecules that directed protein synthesis? a. Proteins were the more complex molecules in which genetic information could be stored. b. Proteins were more likely to have catalytic properties for synthesis reactions. c. Proteins were the same types of molecules as those that were being synthesized. d. At the time, more was known about the structure of proteins than that of DNA. 100. If autophosphorylation of CheA protein does not occur, then Escherichia coli cells must be a. in a gradient of a chemoattractant. b. in a gradient of a chemorepellant. c. tumbling. d. rotating flagella clockwise. 101. The standard or housekeeping sigma factor used most often by E. coli RNA polymerase under normal growth conditions is called sigma . a. 70 b. 32 c. S d. E 102. The terminator versus anti-terminator function of the T box-based riboswitch used by Gram-positive bacteria to regulate amino acid-related genes is determined by a. the binding of the appropriate uncharged tRNA. b. the rate of leader peptide synthesis. c. the binding of the T box binding protein. d. the utilization of the appropriate sigma factor by RNA polymerase. 103. The process by which the base sequence of an RNA molecule is used to direct the synthesis of a protein is called . a. replication b. transcription c. reverse transcription d. Translation 104. RNA polymerase II of eukaryotes is responsible for transcribing . a. rRNA b. mRNA c. tRNA d. All of the choices are correct. 105. In , the ribosomes can attach to the mRNA and begin translation even though transcription has not been completed. a. prokaryotes b. eukaryotes c. fungi d. archaea 106. Which of the following is not a strategy that bacteria use to resist the action of antibiotics? a. Modification of the antibiotic by the acetylation or phosphorylation. b. Cleavage of a key structural component of the antibiotic. c. Altering cell membrane structure to prevent antibiotic influx. d. All of the choices are correct. 107. During generalized transduction a. the host chromosome is degraded into randomly sized fragments. b. any DNA fragment of the appropriate size is packaged. c. any bacterial gene may be transferred to the subsequent host. d. All of the choices are correct. 108. The analysis of genetic relatedness by observing the DNA fragmentation patterns resulting from restriction endonuclease cleavage is referred to as . a. genetic fingerprinting b. genetic patterning c. genetic restriction d. genetic chunking 109. The science dealing with classification is called . a. taxonomy b. nomenclature c. systematics d. identification 110. In which of the following locations would you be most likely to find a species of Euglena? a. Rumen of a dairy cow b. Intestine of humans c. Pond d. Garden soil 111. What is the most likely role of the tests in a testate amoeba? a. Provide motility b. Concentrate nutrients c. Provide protection d. Enable adherence to surfaces 112. The pellicle of a Euglena cell consists of a. glycoprotein. b. polysaccharide. c. peptidoglycan. d. protein strips and microtubules. 113. Tempeh and sufu are food products made from soybeans. Which fungal group is responsible for the production of these two food products? a. Basidomycetes b. Ascomycetes c. Glomerulomycetes d. Zygomycetes e. Microsporidia 114. Fungi form functional associations with which of the following? a. Plant roots b. Phototrophic microbes c. Animals d. Plant roots and phototrophic microbes 115. What is the function of sclerotia? a. Survival in stressful conditions b. Sexual reproduction c. Asexual reproduction d. Waste disposal 116. Which of the following is not a function of the replicative form (dsDNA) of phage phiX174? a. Function to direct the synthesis of more RF copies. b. Function to direct the synthesis of minus-stranded DNA. c. Function to direct the synthesis of plus-stranded DNA. d. Function to direct the synthesis of mRNA. 117. A group of viruses that cause severe diarrhea, resulting in over 600,000 deaths worldwide annually is the . a. polioviruses b. rotaviruses c. poxviruses d. herpesviruses 118. Who of the following first discovered that some blood leukocytes could engulf disease- causing bacteria? a. von Behring b. Meister c. Metchnikoff d. Ivanowski 119. The most important aspect of agar that makes it a useful ingredient for solidifying media for bacterial culture is a. It provides an excellent nitrogen source for bacteria. b. Bacteria are unable to break it down so it stays solidified. c. It melts at 100*C and solidifies at temperatures below 50*C. d. It provides an excellent carbon and energy source for bacteria. 120. If the decolorizer is not left on long enough in the Gram-staining procedure, gram-positive organisms will be stained and gram-negative organisms will be stained . a. purple; purple b. purple; colorless c. purple; pink d. pink; pink 121. Which of the following is not a major class of growth factors? a. Amino acids b. Purines and pyrimidines c. Vitamins d. Nucleic acids 122. External structures that are found in Archaea but not Bacteria are . a. pili b. flagella c. hami d. Peptidoglycan 123. Stacks of cisternae in the Golgi apparatus are referred to as a. stigmata. b. golgisomes. c. dictyosomes. d. Lamellisomes. 124. Which of the following is a function of the mitochondrion? a. Tricarboxylic acid cycle enzyme reactions b. Electron transport c. ATP synthesis d. All of the choices are correct 125. Adult T-cell leukemia is thought to be caused by a. herpesviruses. b. retroviruses. c. parvoviruses. d. Picornaviruses. 126. All of the following are methods of prion disease transmission EXCEPT a. ingestion of infected tissue. b. inheritance (genetic). c. organ or tissue transplantation. d. contamination through use of inadequately processed surgical instruments. e. inhalation (airborne). 127. Which of the following is most similar between the cell cycle process of Sulfolobus and that of bacteria? a. The segregation of the chromosomes b. The cytokinesis process c. The timing of events during G1, S, and G2 128. A growth medium that favors the growth of some microorganisms but inhibits the growth of other microorganisms is a medium. a. selective b. differential c. selective and differential d. neither selective nor differential 129. Where is the electron transport chain located in bacterial cells? a. Plasma membrane b. Periplasm c. Mitochondrial inner membrane d. Mitochondrial outer membrane 130. The nonprotein component of an enzyme that is firmly attached to the protein is called a(n) a. apoenzyme. b. coenzyme. c. holoenzyme. d. prosthetic group. 131. Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation are the three basic types of a. chemoorganoheterotrophic metabolism. b. photolithoautotrophic metabolism. c. chemolithoautotrophic metabolism. d. chemoorganoautotrophic metabolism 132. Two intermediates of the sterol biosynthesis pathway, isopentenyl diphosphate and dimethylallyl diphosphate, are used by archaea in the biosynthesis of . a. b. nucleotides c. diacylglycerol d. Hormones 133. The synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors is called . a. Glycolysis b. glutamine synthase c. gluconeogenesis d. None of the choices are correct. 134. Modify the following statement to make it correct: Ribozymes are ribonucleosomes used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify DNA. a. Ribozymes are ribonucleases used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify RNA. b. Ribozymes are ribonucleosomes used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify RNA. c. Ribozymes are ribonucleases used by bacteria and eukaryotic cells to modify DNA. d. Ribozymes are ribonucleosomes used only by eukaryotic cells to modify RNA. 135. Cell-to-cell communication by quorum sensing has been shown to be important in the regulation of genes needed for a. virulence. b. biofilm production. c. plasmid transfer. d. All of the choices are correct. 136. The E. coli lac operon has operator sequences. a. one b. two c. three d. Four 137. In attenuation regulation of the trp operon, which stem loop forms when tryptophan is readily available to the cell? a. 3:4 b. 1:3 c. 2:3 d. 2:4 138. Ribosomes consist of separate subunits that come together as part of the initiation process and dissociate immediately after termination. a. two b. three c. four d. Five 139. The region at which the RNA polymerase binds is the region. a. leader b. promoter c. coding d. Trailer 140. Which of the following is incorrect about archaeal translation? a. Archaeal translation uses 70S ribosomes, similar to bacterial ribosomes. b. Archaeal translation may recognize ribosome binding sites homologous to bacterial Shine- Dalgarno sequences. c. Archaeal translation uses no chaperone proteins for folding new polypeptides. d. Archaeal translation is coupled to transcription, similar to bacterial processes. 141. During generalized transduction a. the host chromosome is degraded into randomly sized fragments. b. any DNA fragment of the appropriate size is packaged. c. any bacterial gene may be transferred to the subsequent host. d. All of the choices are correct. 142. An unrooted tree containing four unrelated species can become rooted by adding a. a descendant group related to two of the species. b. an unrelated outgroup. c. a distantly related outgroup. d. a descendant related to only one of the species. 143. A theoretical concept that is used to understand how and why certain organisms can be sorted into discrete taxonomic groups is known as the . a. endosymbiotic theory b. species concept c. phylogenetic concept d. genotypic concept 144. Trichomoniasis in humans is caused by a member of the group of protists. a. Fornicata b. Parabasalia c. Euglenozoa d. Amoebozoa 145. The apical complex in the apicomplexans a. is located at one end of the cell. b. aids in penetration of host cells. c. contains mitochondria. d. is located at one end of the cell and aids in penetration of host cells. 146. The are of critical ecological importance because most are endomycorrhizal symbionts of vascular plants. a. Glomeromycota b. Basidiomycota c. Deuteromycota d. Zygomycota 147. All of the following are included in the Basidiomycetes EXCEPT . a. stolons b. puffballs c. yeasts d. Smuts 148. Rubulavirus falls under which group of the ICTV nomenclature system? a. Order b. Family c. Subfamily d. Genus 149. Late mRNA products in T4 phage include a. phage structural proteins. b. proteins that help with phage assembly without becoming part of the virion. c. proteins involved in cell lysis and phage release. d. All of the above are correct. 150. What is unique about reverse transcriptase that makes it different from other DNA polymerases? a. It is found exclusively in DNA viruses. b. It has ligase ability built in so host enzymes are not needed to seal up breaks in DNA made during replication. c. It lacks normal proofreading ability leading to many errors during replication. d. It manufactures a special tRNA molecule that it uses as a primer to initiate replication. 151. If you forgot to apply the safranin counterstain while performing a Gram stain, which outcome would you expect? a. Gram-positive bacteria would stain pink. b. Gram-negative bacteria would stain purple. c. Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria would be unstained. d. Gram-negative bacteria would be unstained. 152. Elements that are required in relatively large amounts by microorganisms are called a. multivitamins. b. meganutrients. c. macronutrients. d. macromolecules. 153. One type of archaeon, Haloquadratum walsbyi, is shaped like a postage stamp with dimensions of 2 µm x 3 µm x 0.25 µm. What advantage would this shape provide? a. This shape enables this bacteria to float on surfaces and obtain better light exposure. b. This shape increases the surface to volume ratio enabling more efficient nutrient uptake. c. This shape is difficult for phagocytic cells to attach to and engulf. d. This shape is more conducive to the formation of biofilm communities. 154. Archaeal membranes contain which of the following lipids? a. Phospholipids b. Sulfolipids c. Glycolipids d. All of the choices are correct. 155. The Archaea generally lack which of the following that are normally found in gram-negative bacteria? a. Outer membrane b. A complex peptidoglycan network c. Lipopolysaccharide d. All of the choices are correct. 156. Which of the following is useful in distinguishing between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? a. The use of DNA for the storage of genetic information b. The presence of ribosomes for the synthesis of proteins c. The presence of membrane-delimited organelles within the cytoplasm d. All of the choices are correct. 157. Which of the following DOES NOT occur in a membranous structure in eukaryotes? a. cell respiration – electron transport chain. b. photosynthesis – light reactions. c. intracellular digestion of food particles. Incorrect d. protein synthesis (translation). 158. Which of the following is/are necessary for the replication of a satellite virus? a. Host cell only b. Helper virus only c. Prion only d. Host cell and helper virus 159. What is the minimum number of phage that can initiate the development of a plaque in a bacterial lawn? a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 160. All fastidious microorganisms require which of the following for growth? a. Oxygen b. Temperatures near normal for the human body c. Extra nutrients (such as whole blood) d. Iron 161. Where is the electron transport chain located in bacterial cells? a. Plasma membrane b. Periplasm c. Mitochondrial inner membrane d. Mitochondrial outer membrane 162. What nucleoside trisphosphate, other than ATP, provides some of the energy for protein synthesis? a. UTP b. TTP c. CTP d. GTP 163. Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and fermentation are the three basic types of a. chemoorganoheterotrophic metabolism. b. photolithoautotrophic metabolism. c. chemolithoautotrophic metabolism. d. chemoorganoautotrophic metabolism. 164. A purine or pyrimidine that is attached to a sugar, either ribose or deoxyribose, is called a . a. nucleotide b. nucleoside c. nitrogenous base d. nucleic acid 165. What would be the most likely outcome if the genetic code was not degenerate? a. The effect of some mutations would increase. b. The effect of some mutations would decrease. c. The mutation rate would remain the same. d. The number of stop codons would increase. 166. The activity of adenyl cyclase is influenced by a. the phosphotransferase system. b. the presence of lactose in the environment. c. homoserine lactones. d. None of the choices are correct. 167. What is the key factor determining whether or not attenuation will occur when transcription of the E. coli trp operon has been initiated? a. The activity level of adenyl cyclase b. The trp operon repressor c. The level of tryptophan in the environment d. The level of trp-tRNA that is charged with tryptophan 168. When a DNA molecule is replicated, the daughter molecules contain one strand of parental DNA and one strand of newly synthesized DNA; this is called replication. a. hemiconservative b. conservative c. semiconservative d. dispersive 169. Which of the following statements is the best definition of a telomerase? a. Telomerase is an enzyme that helps separate DNA strands. b. Telomerase is an enzyme that helps proofread and correct newly synthesized DNA. c. Telomerase is an enzyme that helps solve the "end replication problem." d. Telomerase is an enzyme that cleaves introns and exons. 170. Which of the following is not a strategy that bacteria use to resist the action of antibiotics? a. Modification of the antibiotic by the acetylation or phosphorylation. b. Cleavage of a key structural component of the antibiotic. c. Altering cell membrane structure to prevent antibiotic influx. d. All of the choices are correct. 171. Which of the following is true about Bergey's Manual? a. The first edition is mostly phenetic while the second edition is more phylogenetic. b. The first edition is largely phylogenetic while the second edition is more phenetic. c. The first and second editions are both largely phenetic. d. The first and second editions are both largely phylogenetic. 172. The cellulase-excreting protist that can account for up to one-third of the biomass of a termite is a member of the genus a. Hexamida. b. Trichomonas. c. Trichonympha. d. Euglena. 173. The Stramenopila are a very large and diverse group that all possess at some point in their life cycle. a. a macronucleus b. chloroplasts c. an exoskeleton d. heterokont flagella 174. When protists feed on solid nutrients such as bacteria by phagocytosis, they are said to be using nutrition. a. saprozoic b. holozoic c. endozoic d. parasitic 175. The fungus used in the production of saki and soy sauce is . a. Aspergillus oryzae b. Aspergillus fumigatus c. Aspergillus nidulans d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae 176. Fungi are found primarily in which of the following environments? a. Marine b. Freshwater c. Terrestrial d. Arboreal 177. On what basis have Microsporidia been classified as fungi? a. Lack of mitochondria b. Presence of mitosomes c. Analysis of ribosomal RNA d. Presence of a polar tube e. Role as an obligate intracellular parasite 178. Bacteriophage that only exhibit lytic replication cycles are called phages. a. temperate b. virulent c. intemperate d. lytigate 179. The tails of some bacteriophage a. include a tail sheath that shortens. b. rotate like flagella to drive the phage genome into the cytoplasm of the host. c. exhibit oar-like motion that drives the phage genome into the cytoplasm of the host. d. None of the choices are correct. 180. Which of the following must bring in a virion-associated RNA-dependent RNA polymerase when it infects host cells? a. +ssRNA viruses b. -ssRNA viruses c. +dsRNA viruses d. All of the choices are correct. Hope you do great!!