“BMTCN PRACTICE TEST HSCT NURSING CARE
”LATEST EXAM 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST
VERSION) WELL REVISED 100% GUARANTEE PASS
BMTCN Practice Test
A conditioning regimen that includes cyclophosphamide may cause which
side effect during the initial two weeks post-transplant?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Pleural effusion
D. Renal calculi
C. Conditioning regimens that include cyclophosphamide increase the risk of pleural
effusion in the immediate post-transplant period.
A patient who is day +35 allogeneic HSCT develops a pruritic, erythematous,
maculopapular rash on the plantar and palmar surfaces.
A. Necrotizing fasciitis
B. Acute GVHD
C. Herpes zoster
D. Contact dermatitis
B. A pruritic or painful erythematous maculopapular rash on the plantar and palmar
surfaces in a patient 2-5 weeks following an allogeneic HSCT is likely acute GVHD.
Which of the following denies a patient's eligibility for hospice services?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Medicare services
C. Referring physician
D. Life expectancy of three months
A. Another frequent barrier to hospice eligibility is the desire to continue treatments
such as blood transfusions, chemotherapy, total parenteral nutrition, and IV fluids
because of the belief that these interventions will enhance the patient.
Which of the following clinical findings is associated with polymyositis?
A. Facial weakness
B. Ptosis
C. Proximal muscle weakness
D. Sensory loss
C. Proximal muscle weakness is associated with polymyositis.
Which of the following is a chemokine receptor that helps to regulate stem cell
release into the peripheral circulation?
A. CCR7
B. CXCR4
,C. CD14
D. CD34
B. CXCR4 has been identified as being important in the regulation of trafficking and
homing of cells involved in hematopoiesis and the immune system.
Immunoglobulins are secreted by which type of cell?
A. B-lymphocyte
B. Megakaryocyte
C. T-lymphocyte
D. Natural killer
A. B-lymphocyte
B lymphocytes synthesize and secrete immunoglobulins.
Which portion of the immunoglobulin activates the complement pathway?
A. MHC Class I
B. Fab
C. Fc
D. MHC Class II
C. Fc
The Fc region activates the complement pathway.
Which of the following is a class II HLA antigen?
A. B
B. DR
C. A
D. C
B. DR
HLA DR, DQ and DP are class II antigens.
Which of the following is a disadvantage for the host of matched
sibling/related donor stem cells?
A. Delayed time to engraftment
B. Increased rate of infection
C. Limited number of cells available
D. Graft-versus-host disease
D. Graft-versus-host disease
GVHD is a risk when using a matched sibling/related donor.
Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of
the teaching regarding hematopoietic stem cells?
A. A high number are normally found in the peripheral circulation
B. They spend the majority of their life in an actively dividing state
C. A percentage of progenitor cells are self-renewing
D. They express protein markers on their cell surface
D. They express protein markers on their cell surface
,Hematopoietic stem cells express protein markers on their cell surface that define
the type of cell and facilitate communication with other cells.
A pre-transplant patient asks about ABO compatibility with the donor. The
nurse explains that:
A. there is less risk of GVHD.
B. the likelihood of engraftment is increased.
C. it is not essential for success.
D. compatibility is associated with better outcomes.
C. it is not essential for success.
ABO compatibility is not necessary for successful transplant
Which of the following factors affect the success of stem cell mobilization?
A. Vaccination history
B. Exposure to prior radiation
C. Prior pregnancies
D. Ethnic origin
B. Exposure to prior radiation
Radiation may adversely affect the ability to achieve successful transplantation
Which of the following is an advantage of a non-myeloablative transplant?
A. Capitalize on the graft-versus-leukemia effect
B. Prevent the development of GVHD
C. Increase the efficacy in patients with high tumor burden
D. Decrease the incidence of graft rejection
A. Capitalize on the graft-versus-leukemia effect
Non-myeloablative transplants are indicated for patient where the GVL effect is the
desired outcome and is less toxic.
Which of the following medications is a chemokine antagonist that is used for
stem cell mobilization?
A. Filgrastim
B. Erythropoietin
C. Sargramostim
D. Plerixafor
D. Plerixafor
Plerixafor is the first chemokine antagonist for stem cell mobilization.
How many days should lapse between dental extraction and the start of
conditioning?
A. 5 to 7
B. 10 to 14
C. 18 to 21
D. 28 to 30
B. 10 to 14
, In order to prevent potential complications, dental extraction and healing should be
complete 10-14 days prior to beginning a conditioning regimen or transplantation.
A patient reports facial swelling during the stem cell infusion. The nurse
should immediately stop the infusion and anticipate an order for which
medication?
A. Cryotherapy
B. Furosemide
C. Antihistamines
D. Oxygen
C. Antihistamines
Urticaria, pruritus, facial or glottal edema are all signs of an allergic reaction. The
nurse should stop the infusion and then administer antihistamines.
Why is the additive DMSO used during stem cell processing?
A. Prevents cell damage during the freezing and thawing of autologous stem
cells
B. Facilitates purging of malignant cells in autologous transplants
C. Prevents coagulation in bags of unrelated fresh bone marrow and stem
cells
D. Prevents GVHD by removing stimulatory cytokines from mismatched stem
cells
A. Prevents cell damage during the freezing and thawing of autologous stem cells
DMSO is an additive used to prevent damage to cells during freezing or thawing
Which of the following is a rationale for using high dose TBI during
conditioning?
A. Decrease long-term toxicities
B. Eliminate the need for toxic chemotherapy
C. Prevent the development of pancytopenias
D. Reach areas that harbor tumor cells
D. Reach areas that harbor tumor cells
High dose TBI has the ability to reach areas that harbor tumor cells.
Nurses administering preparative regimens for transplant must:
A. have completed the ONS Chemotherapy & Biotherapy Certificate course.
B. be certified as a BMTCN.
C. attend a chemotherapy course approved by FACT.
D. receive specific chemotherapy education.
D. receive specific chemotherapy education.
Nurses who administer chemotherapy must receive education specific to
chemotherapy.
Patients who have received an HSCT should receive which of the following
annual immunizations?
A. Yellow Fever
B. Intranasal influenza
”LATEST EXAM 2026 SOLVED QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS VERIFIED 100% GRADED A+ (LATEST
VERSION) WELL REVISED 100% GUARANTEE PASS
BMTCN Practice Test
A conditioning regimen that includes cyclophosphamide may cause which
side effect during the initial two weeks post-transplant?
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Adrenal insufficiency
C. Pleural effusion
D. Renal calculi
C. Conditioning regimens that include cyclophosphamide increase the risk of pleural
effusion in the immediate post-transplant period.
A patient who is day +35 allogeneic HSCT develops a pruritic, erythematous,
maculopapular rash on the plantar and palmar surfaces.
A. Necrotizing fasciitis
B. Acute GVHD
C. Herpes zoster
D. Contact dermatitis
B. A pruritic or painful erythematous maculopapular rash on the plantar and palmar
surfaces in a patient 2-5 weeks following an allogeneic HSCT is likely acute GVHD.
Which of the following denies a patient's eligibility for hospice services?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Medicare services
C. Referring physician
D. Life expectancy of three months
A. Another frequent barrier to hospice eligibility is the desire to continue treatments
such as blood transfusions, chemotherapy, total parenteral nutrition, and IV fluids
because of the belief that these interventions will enhance the patient.
Which of the following clinical findings is associated with polymyositis?
A. Facial weakness
B. Ptosis
C. Proximal muscle weakness
D. Sensory loss
C. Proximal muscle weakness is associated with polymyositis.
Which of the following is a chemokine receptor that helps to regulate stem cell
release into the peripheral circulation?
A. CCR7
B. CXCR4
,C. CD14
D. CD34
B. CXCR4 has been identified as being important in the regulation of trafficking and
homing of cells involved in hematopoiesis and the immune system.
Immunoglobulins are secreted by which type of cell?
A. B-lymphocyte
B. Megakaryocyte
C. T-lymphocyte
D. Natural killer
A. B-lymphocyte
B lymphocytes synthesize and secrete immunoglobulins.
Which portion of the immunoglobulin activates the complement pathway?
A. MHC Class I
B. Fab
C. Fc
D. MHC Class II
C. Fc
The Fc region activates the complement pathway.
Which of the following is a class II HLA antigen?
A. B
B. DR
C. A
D. C
B. DR
HLA DR, DQ and DP are class II antigens.
Which of the following is a disadvantage for the host of matched
sibling/related donor stem cells?
A. Delayed time to engraftment
B. Increased rate of infection
C. Limited number of cells available
D. Graft-versus-host disease
D. Graft-versus-host disease
GVHD is a risk when using a matched sibling/related donor.
Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of
the teaching regarding hematopoietic stem cells?
A. A high number are normally found in the peripheral circulation
B. They spend the majority of their life in an actively dividing state
C. A percentage of progenitor cells are self-renewing
D. They express protein markers on their cell surface
D. They express protein markers on their cell surface
,Hematopoietic stem cells express protein markers on their cell surface that define
the type of cell and facilitate communication with other cells.
A pre-transplant patient asks about ABO compatibility with the donor. The
nurse explains that:
A. there is less risk of GVHD.
B. the likelihood of engraftment is increased.
C. it is not essential for success.
D. compatibility is associated with better outcomes.
C. it is not essential for success.
ABO compatibility is not necessary for successful transplant
Which of the following factors affect the success of stem cell mobilization?
A. Vaccination history
B. Exposure to prior radiation
C. Prior pregnancies
D. Ethnic origin
B. Exposure to prior radiation
Radiation may adversely affect the ability to achieve successful transplantation
Which of the following is an advantage of a non-myeloablative transplant?
A. Capitalize on the graft-versus-leukemia effect
B. Prevent the development of GVHD
C. Increase the efficacy in patients with high tumor burden
D. Decrease the incidence of graft rejection
A. Capitalize on the graft-versus-leukemia effect
Non-myeloablative transplants are indicated for patient where the GVL effect is the
desired outcome and is less toxic.
Which of the following medications is a chemokine antagonist that is used for
stem cell mobilization?
A. Filgrastim
B. Erythropoietin
C. Sargramostim
D. Plerixafor
D. Plerixafor
Plerixafor is the first chemokine antagonist for stem cell mobilization.
How many days should lapse between dental extraction and the start of
conditioning?
A. 5 to 7
B. 10 to 14
C. 18 to 21
D. 28 to 30
B. 10 to 14
, In order to prevent potential complications, dental extraction and healing should be
complete 10-14 days prior to beginning a conditioning regimen or transplantation.
A patient reports facial swelling during the stem cell infusion. The nurse
should immediately stop the infusion and anticipate an order for which
medication?
A. Cryotherapy
B. Furosemide
C. Antihistamines
D. Oxygen
C. Antihistamines
Urticaria, pruritus, facial or glottal edema are all signs of an allergic reaction. The
nurse should stop the infusion and then administer antihistamines.
Why is the additive DMSO used during stem cell processing?
A. Prevents cell damage during the freezing and thawing of autologous stem
cells
B. Facilitates purging of malignant cells in autologous transplants
C. Prevents coagulation in bags of unrelated fresh bone marrow and stem
cells
D. Prevents GVHD by removing stimulatory cytokines from mismatched stem
cells
A. Prevents cell damage during the freezing and thawing of autologous stem cells
DMSO is an additive used to prevent damage to cells during freezing or thawing
Which of the following is a rationale for using high dose TBI during
conditioning?
A. Decrease long-term toxicities
B. Eliminate the need for toxic chemotherapy
C. Prevent the development of pancytopenias
D. Reach areas that harbor tumor cells
D. Reach areas that harbor tumor cells
High dose TBI has the ability to reach areas that harbor tumor cells.
Nurses administering preparative regimens for transplant must:
A. have completed the ONS Chemotherapy & Biotherapy Certificate course.
B. be certified as a BMTCN.
C. attend a chemotherapy course approved by FACT.
D. receive specific chemotherapy education.
D. receive specific chemotherapy education.
Nurses who administer chemotherapy must receive education specific to
chemotherapy.
Patients who have received an HSCT should receive which of the following
annual immunizations?
A. Yellow Fever
B. Intranasal influenza
