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NGN RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
Exam Test Bank (Newest 2026) | Actual
Exam Q & A with Verified Detailed
Answers | Next Gen NCLEX | Grade A |
Guaranteed Pass
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing (RN) exam preparation; Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) style
questions covering a wide range of topics including medical-surgical, psychiatric,
pediatric, obstetric, and community health nursing.
Source: VATI/RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam test bank material (2026).
Format: Multiple-choice and Select All That Apply (SATA) questions with answers and
1. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the care of a client
who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring. Which of
the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates
effectiveness of the teaching?
A. "Air should be instilled into the monitoring system prior to the
procedure."
B. "The client should be positioned on the left side during the procedure."
C. "The transducer should be level with the second intercostal spaced after
the line is placed."
D. "A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the procedure."
Correct Answer: D. "A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the
procedure."
Rationale:
1. For central lines, especially those used for hemodynamic monitoring
(e.g., pulmonary artery catheter), a chest x-ray is the standard
, 2|Page
procedure to verify correct placement and rule out complications like
pneumothorax.
2. Air should be removed, not instilled, from the system to prevent air
embolism.
3. Positioning on the left side is not a standard requirement for the
procedure.
4. The transducer is leveled at the phlebostatic axis (4th intercostal
space, midaxillary line), not the second intercostal space, for accurate
pressure readings.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing mild anxiety.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Heightened perceptual field
B. Rapid speech -severe
C. Feelings of dread
Correct Answer: A. Heightened perceptual field
Rationale:
1. In mild anxiety, the client's perceptual field is heightened; they are
alert, can process information, and learning is enhanced.
2. Rapid speech is more characteristic of severe anxiety or panic.
3. Feelings of dread are associated with moderate to severe anxiety
levels.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The
client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following
findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic?
(SATA)
A. Tremors
B. Diaphoresis
C. Acetone breath = DKA
D. Polydipsia= Hyperglycemia
E. Inability to concentrate
Correct Answer: A. Tremors, B. Diaphoresis, E. Inability to concentrate
Rationale:
1. Tremors, diaphoresis (sweating), and inability to concentrate are
classic autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia
(low blood glucose).
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2. Acetone (fruity) breath is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a
hyperglycemic crisis.
3. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) is a symptom of hyperglycemia.
4. A community health nurse is planning primary prevention activities
to reduce the occurrence of abuse. Which of the following strategies
should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Instruct healthcare professionals to identify abusive situations
B. Locate financial support to open a shelter for abuse survivors
C. Teach parenting skills to families at risk for abuse
Correct Answer: C. Teach parenting skills to families at risk for abuse
Rationale:
1. Primary prevention aims to prevent the problem before it occurs.
2. Teaching parenting skills addresses potential risk factors (e.g., poor
coping, lack of knowledge) and promotes healthy family dynamics,
which can prevent abuse.
3. Identifying abusive situations is secondary prevention (early
detection).
4. Opening a shelter is tertiary prevention (intervention after abuse has
occurred).
5. A nurse and an assistive personnel (AP) are caring for a group of
clients. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to
delegate to the AP?
A. Documenting the report of pain for a client who is postoperative
B. Administering oral fluids to a client who has dysphagia
C. Applying a condom catheter for a client who has spinal cord injury
Correct Answer: C. Applying a condom catheter for a client who has spinal
cord injury
Rationale:
1. Applying a condom catheter is a routine, non-sterile procedure that
falls within the scope of practice for an AP with appropriate training.
2. Assessing and documenting pain is a nursing judgment and
evaluation function that cannot be delegated.
3. Administering fluids to a client with dysphagia requires assessment
of swallowing ability, which is a nursing responsibility due to the risk
of aspiration.
, 4|Page
6. A nursing planning care for a school- age child who is 4 hr
postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the
following actions should the nurse include?
A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery (assess for
gag reflex first)
B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr (for asthma)
C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr
D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr
Correct Answer: D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first
24 hr
Rationale:
1. Scheduled (around-the-clock) analgesia for the first 24-48 hours
postoperatively provides consistent pain control, promotes rest and
healing, and prevents pain escalation.
2. Following a perforated appendicitis with potential peritonitis, bowel
sounds must return and the NG tube (if present) be removed before
initiating oral fluids; 6 hours is too early.
3. Cromolyn is for asthma prevention, not related to appendicitis.
4. A warm compress is not typically applied to a fresh surgical incision;
it could increase bleeding or inflammation.
7. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application (apply to hairless, clean &
dry areas to promote absorption; avoid oily or broken skin)
B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin
C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch
(apply immediately)
D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue (fold patch in half with
sticky sides pressed together)
Correct Answer: B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin
Rationale:
1. The nurse's first priority is self-protection. Wearing gloves prevents
the nurse from absorbing nicotine through their own skin.
NGN RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
Exam Test Bank (Newest 2026) | Actual
Exam Q & A with Verified Detailed
Answers | Next Gen NCLEX | Grade A |
Guaranteed Pass
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing (RN) exam preparation; Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) style
questions covering a wide range of topics including medical-surgical, psychiatric,
pediatric, obstetric, and community health nursing.
Source: VATI/RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam test bank material (2026).
Format: Multiple-choice and Select All That Apply (SATA) questions with answers and
1. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse on the care of a client
who is to have a line placed for hemodynamic monitoring. Which of
the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates
effectiveness of the teaching?
A. "Air should be instilled into the monitoring system prior to the
procedure."
B. "The client should be positioned on the left side during the procedure."
C. "The transducer should be level with the second intercostal spaced after
the line is placed."
D. "A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the procedure."
Correct Answer: D. "A chest x-ray is needed to verify placement after the
procedure."
Rationale:
1. For central lines, especially those used for hemodynamic monitoring
(e.g., pulmonary artery catheter), a chest x-ray is the standard
, 2|Page
procedure to verify correct placement and rule out complications like
pneumothorax.
2. Air should be removed, not instilled, from the system to prevent air
embolism.
3. Positioning on the left side is not a standard requirement for the
procedure.
4. The transducer is leveled at the phlebostatic axis (4th intercostal
space, midaxillary line), not the second intercostal space, for accurate
pressure readings.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing mild anxiety.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Heightened perceptual field
B. Rapid speech -severe
C. Feelings of dread
Correct Answer: A. Heightened perceptual field
Rationale:
1. In mild anxiety, the client's perceptual field is heightened; they are
alert, can process information, and learning is enhanced.
2. Rapid speech is more characteristic of severe anxiety or panic.
3. Feelings of dread are associated with moderate to severe anxiety
levels.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus. The
client reports that she is not feeling well. Which of the following
findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is hypoglycemic?
(SATA)
A. Tremors
B. Diaphoresis
C. Acetone breath = DKA
D. Polydipsia= Hyperglycemia
E. Inability to concentrate
Correct Answer: A. Tremors, B. Diaphoresis, E. Inability to concentrate
Rationale:
1. Tremors, diaphoresis (sweating), and inability to concentrate are
classic autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycemia
(low blood glucose).
, 3|Page
2. Acetone (fruity) breath is a sign of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a
hyperglycemic crisis.
3. Polydipsia (excessive thirst) is a symptom of hyperglycemia.
4. A community health nurse is planning primary prevention activities
to reduce the occurrence of abuse. Which of the following strategies
should the nurse include in the plan?
A. Instruct healthcare professionals to identify abusive situations
B. Locate financial support to open a shelter for abuse survivors
C. Teach parenting skills to families at risk for abuse
Correct Answer: C. Teach parenting skills to families at risk for abuse
Rationale:
1. Primary prevention aims to prevent the problem before it occurs.
2. Teaching parenting skills addresses potential risk factors (e.g., poor
coping, lack of knowledge) and promotes healthy family dynamics,
which can prevent abuse.
3. Identifying abusive situations is secondary prevention (early
detection).
4. Opening a shelter is tertiary prevention (intervention after abuse has
occurred).
5. A nurse and an assistive personnel (AP) are caring for a group of
clients. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to
delegate to the AP?
A. Documenting the report of pain for a client who is postoperative
B. Administering oral fluids to a client who has dysphagia
C. Applying a condom catheter for a client who has spinal cord injury
Correct Answer: C. Applying a condom catheter for a client who has spinal
cord injury
Rationale:
1. Applying a condom catheter is a routine, non-sterile procedure that
falls within the scope of practice for an AP with appropriate training.
2. Assessing and documenting pain is a nursing judgment and
evaluation function that cannot be delegated.
3. Administering fluids to a client with dysphagia requires assessment
of swallowing ability, which is a nursing responsibility due to the risk
of aspiration.
, 4|Page
6. A nursing planning care for a school- age child who is 4 hr
postoperative following perforated appendicitis. Which of the
following actions should the nurse include?
A. Offer small amounts of clear liquids 6 hr following surgery (assess for
gag reflex first)
B. Give cromolyn nebulizer solution every 6 hr (for asthma)
C. Apply a warm compress to the operative site every 4 hr
D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first 24 hr
Correct Answer: D. Administer analgesics on a scheduled basis for the first
24 hr
Rationale:
1. Scheduled (around-the-clock) analgesia for the first 24-48 hours
postoperatively provides consistent pain control, promotes rest and
healing, and prevents pain escalation.
2. Following a perforated appendicitis with potential peritonitis, bowel
sounds must return and the NG tube (if present) be removed before
initiating oral fluids; 6 hours is too early.
3. Cromolyn is for asthma prevention, not related to appendicitis.
4. A warm compress is not typically applied to a fresh surgical incision;
it could increase bleeding or inflammation.
7. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application (apply to hairless, clean &
dry areas to promote absorption; avoid oily or broken skin)
B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin
C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch
(apply immediately)
D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue (fold patch in half with
sticky sides pressed together)
Correct Answer: B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin
Rationale:
1. The nurse's first priority is self-protection. Wearing gloves prevents
the nurse from absorbing nicotine through their own skin.
