NEXT GENERATION NCLEX RN ATI FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING PROCTORED
EXAM 2025/2026 WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative and has been prescribed a clear liquid diet.
Which of the following food items should the nurse include on the client's meal tray?
A) Vanilla pudding
B) Orange juice with pulp
C) Fat-free broth
D) Low-fat yogurt
E) Pureed peaches
Correct Answer: C) Fat-free broth
Rationale: A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid at room temperature and are
transparent to light. Fat-free broth, bouillon, coffee, tea, carbonated beverages, clear fruit
juices (without pulp, such as apple or grape), and gelatin are acceptable. Vanilla pudding,
yogurt, and orange juice with pulp are considered full liquids because they are opaque.
Pureed peaches are part of a mechanical soft or pureed diet, not a clear liquid diet.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult client who has a
Body Mass Index (BMI) of 28. Which of the following needle lengths is most appropriate for the
ventrogluteal site?
A) 5/8 inch
B) 1/2 inch
C) 1 1/2 inches
D) 2 inches
E) 3 inches
Correct Answer: C) 1 1/2 inches
Rationale: For an adult client, the standard needle length for an IM injection in the
ventrogluteal site is 1.5 inches to ensure the medication is deposited into the muscle mass
rather than the subcutaneous tissue. A 5/8 or 1/2 inch needle is typically used for
subcutaneous injections or for IM injections in infants/small children. While a 2-inch
needle might be used for an obese client, a BMI of 28 is classified as overweight but not
morbidly obese, making 1.5 inches the standard clinical choice.
Question 3
A nurse is practicing proper body mechanics while moving a heavy object. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent back injury?
A) Keep the feet close together to maintain a narrow base of support.
B) Bend at the waist to pick up the object.
C) Hold the object at arm's length away from the body.
D) Spread the feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
, 2
E) Twist the torso while lifting to change direction.
Correct Answer: D) Spread the feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
Rationale: A wide base of support (spreading the feet apart) increases stability and lowers
the center of gravity. The nurse should bend at the knees and hips (not the waist), keep the
object close to the body’s center of gravity to reduce strain, and avoid twisting the spine by
moving the feet in the direction of the turn. Twisting (pivoting at the waist) is a common
cause of nursing-related back injuries.
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client’s radial pulse and notes that the rhythm is irregular. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Document the finding and reassess in 4 hours.
B) Administer a prescribed antiarrhythmic medication.
C) Measure the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds.
D) Use a Doppler ultrasound stethoscope to find the pulse.
E) Assess the pulse on the opposite wrist simultaneously.
Correct Answer: C) Measure the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds.
Rationale: When a peripheral pulse is irregular, the most accurate method to assess the
heart rate and rhythm is to auscultate the apical pulse for one full minute. This allows the
nurse to identify the true heart rate and note any deficits between the apical and radial
sites. Documenting without further assessment (Option A) is incorrect. Administering
medication (Option B) requires a provider's order and a definitive diagnosis. Doppler
(Option D) is used for pulses that are difficult to palpate, not necessarily irregular ones.
Question 5
A nurse is performing a skin assessment on an older adult client. Which of the following findings
is a common age-related change?
A) Increased skin elasticity
B) Increased subcutaneous fat
C) Thickening of the dermis
D) Paper-thin, transparent skin
E) Increased sebaceous gland activity
Correct Answer: D) Paper-thin, transparent skin
Rationale: As skin ages, the epidermis thins, and subcutaneous fat decreases, leading to
"paper-thin" skin that is easily bruised or torn. Elasticity decreases (leading to wrinkles),
and sebaceous gland activity declines, resulting in dryer skin. The dermis actually thins
rather than thickens with age.
Question 6
A nurse is preparing to change the dressing on a client’s stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the
following principles of sterile technique should the nurse follow?
, 3
A) Consider the outer 1-inch border of the sterile field to be contaminated.
B) Open the sterile pack by folding the first flap toward the body.
C) Reach over the sterile field to pick up a sterile gauze.
D) Place sterile items on the field at a 45-degree angle.
E) Keep sterile gloved hands below the level of the waist.
Correct Answer: A) Consider the outer 1-inch border of the sterile field to be contaminated.
Rationale: Standard surgical asepsis dictates that the 1-inch (2.5 cm) edge of a sterile field is
considered non-sterile. The first flap of a sterile kit should be opened away from the body
to avoid reaching over the field. Reaching over the field contaminates it due to dander and
microbes falling from the arms. Sterile hands must be kept above the waist and within the
line of sight to be considered sterile.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who is on droplet precautions. Which of the following personal
protective equipment (PPE) is required when entering the client’s room?
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown and goggles only
D) Sterile gloves
E) No PPE is required unless touching the client
Correct Answer: B) Surgical mask
Rationale: Droplet precautions (used for influenza, pertussis, or meningococcal disease)
require a surgical mask when within 3 to 6 feet of the client. An N95 respirator is required
for airborne precautions (e.g., TB, measles). Gowns and goggles are only required if
splashing of body fluids is anticipated. Standard gloves are used if touching body fluids, but
the "entry" requirement for droplet precautions specifically targets the respiratory route
via a surgical mask.
Question 8
A nurse is teaching a client about a low-sodium diet. Which of the following food choices by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) Canned tomato soup
B) Smoked turkey breast
C) Fresh orange slices
D) Pickled cucumbers
E) Frozen pepperoni pizza
Correct Answer: C) Fresh orange slices
Rationale: Fresh fruits and vegetables are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
processed meats (smoked turkey), pickled items, and frozen convenience foods (pizza) are
, 4
significantly high in sodium due to preservatives and flavoring agents. This question tests
the nurse's ability to identify "whole" vs "processed" foods.
Question 9
A nurse is evaluating a client's use of a cane. Which of the following actions indicates the client
is using the cane correctly?
A) The client holds the cane on the weaker side of the body.
B) The client moves the stronger leg forward first.
C) The client holds the cane on the stronger side of the body.
D) The client keeps the cane 12 inches in front of the feet.
E) The client leans their full body weight onto the cane.
Correct Answer: C) The client holds the cane on the stronger side of the body.
Rationale: A cane should be held on the unaffected (stronger) side to provide support and
better balance for the opposite (weaker) leg. The cane is moved forward first, followed by
the weaker leg, and then the stronger leg. Holding it on the weak side or leaning full weight
on it would decrease stability.
Question 10
A nurse is documenting in a client's medical record. Which of the following entries is an example
of objective data?
A) "Client reports feeling dizzy when standing."
B) "Client states, 'I have a sharp pain in my left hip.'"
C) "Client appears anxious regarding the procedure."
D) "Client's skin is diaphoretic and pale."
E) "Client says they are worried about their insurance."
Correct Answer: D) "Client's skin is diaphoretic and pale."
Rationale: Objective data is observable and measurable information (signs). Diaphoresis
(sweating) and pallor (paleness) can be seen and verified by the nurse. Options A, B, and E
are subjective data (symptoms) because they represent the client's feelings or verbal
statements. Option C is an interpretation or inference, which should be avoided in objective
documentation; instead, the nurse should describe the behaviors that make the client
"appear" anxious.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A) Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed.
B) Use a square knot to secure the restraints.
C) Ensure that two fingers can be inserted under the restraint.
D) Remove the restraints every 4 hours for range-of-motion exercises.
E) Renew the restraint prescription every 48 hours.
EXAM 2025/2026 WITH NGN QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative and has been prescribed a clear liquid diet.
Which of the following food items should the nurse include on the client's meal tray?
A) Vanilla pudding
B) Orange juice with pulp
C) Fat-free broth
D) Low-fat yogurt
E) Pureed peaches
Correct Answer: C) Fat-free broth
Rationale: A clear liquid diet consists of foods that are liquid at room temperature and are
transparent to light. Fat-free broth, bouillon, coffee, tea, carbonated beverages, clear fruit
juices (without pulp, such as apple or grape), and gelatin are acceptable. Vanilla pudding,
yogurt, and orange juice with pulp are considered full liquids because they are opaque.
Pureed peaches are part of a mechanical soft or pureed diet, not a clear liquid diet.
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult client who has a
Body Mass Index (BMI) of 28. Which of the following needle lengths is most appropriate for the
ventrogluteal site?
A) 5/8 inch
B) 1/2 inch
C) 1 1/2 inches
D) 2 inches
E) 3 inches
Correct Answer: C) 1 1/2 inches
Rationale: For an adult client, the standard needle length for an IM injection in the
ventrogluteal site is 1.5 inches to ensure the medication is deposited into the muscle mass
rather than the subcutaneous tissue. A 5/8 or 1/2 inch needle is typically used for
subcutaneous injections or for IM injections in infants/small children. While a 2-inch
needle might be used for an obese client, a BMI of 28 is classified as overweight but not
morbidly obese, making 1.5 inches the standard clinical choice.
Question 3
A nurse is practicing proper body mechanics while moving a heavy object. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent back injury?
A) Keep the feet close together to maintain a narrow base of support.
B) Bend at the waist to pick up the object.
C) Hold the object at arm's length away from the body.
D) Spread the feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
, 2
E) Twist the torso while lifting to change direction.
Correct Answer: D) Spread the feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
Rationale: A wide base of support (spreading the feet apart) increases stability and lowers
the center of gravity. The nurse should bend at the knees and hips (not the waist), keep the
object close to the body’s center of gravity to reduce strain, and avoid twisting the spine by
moving the feet in the direction of the turn. Twisting (pivoting at the waist) is a common
cause of nursing-related back injuries.
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client’s radial pulse and notes that the rhythm is irregular. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take next?
A) Document the finding and reassess in 4 hours.
B) Administer a prescribed antiarrhythmic medication.
C) Measure the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds.
D) Use a Doppler ultrasound stethoscope to find the pulse.
E) Assess the pulse on the opposite wrist simultaneously.
Correct Answer: C) Measure the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds.
Rationale: When a peripheral pulse is irregular, the most accurate method to assess the
heart rate and rhythm is to auscultate the apical pulse for one full minute. This allows the
nurse to identify the true heart rate and note any deficits between the apical and radial
sites. Documenting without further assessment (Option A) is incorrect. Administering
medication (Option B) requires a provider's order and a definitive diagnosis. Doppler
(Option D) is used for pulses that are difficult to palpate, not necessarily irregular ones.
Question 5
A nurse is performing a skin assessment on an older adult client. Which of the following findings
is a common age-related change?
A) Increased skin elasticity
B) Increased subcutaneous fat
C) Thickening of the dermis
D) Paper-thin, transparent skin
E) Increased sebaceous gland activity
Correct Answer: D) Paper-thin, transparent skin
Rationale: As skin ages, the epidermis thins, and subcutaneous fat decreases, leading to
"paper-thin" skin that is easily bruised or torn. Elasticity decreases (leading to wrinkles),
and sebaceous gland activity declines, resulting in dryer skin. The dermis actually thins
rather than thickens with age.
Question 6
A nurse is preparing to change the dressing on a client’s stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the
following principles of sterile technique should the nurse follow?
, 3
A) Consider the outer 1-inch border of the sterile field to be contaminated.
B) Open the sterile pack by folding the first flap toward the body.
C) Reach over the sterile field to pick up a sterile gauze.
D) Place sterile items on the field at a 45-degree angle.
E) Keep sterile gloved hands below the level of the waist.
Correct Answer: A) Consider the outer 1-inch border of the sterile field to be contaminated.
Rationale: Standard surgical asepsis dictates that the 1-inch (2.5 cm) edge of a sterile field is
considered non-sterile. The first flap of a sterile kit should be opened away from the body
to avoid reaching over the field. Reaching over the field contaminates it due to dander and
microbes falling from the arms. Sterile hands must be kept above the waist and within the
line of sight to be considered sterile.
Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who is on droplet precautions. Which of the following personal
protective equipment (PPE) is required when entering the client’s room?
A) N95 respirator
B) Surgical mask
C) Gown and goggles only
D) Sterile gloves
E) No PPE is required unless touching the client
Correct Answer: B) Surgical mask
Rationale: Droplet precautions (used for influenza, pertussis, or meningococcal disease)
require a surgical mask when within 3 to 6 feet of the client. An N95 respirator is required
for airborne precautions (e.g., TB, measles). Gowns and goggles are only required if
splashing of body fluids is anticipated. Standard gloves are used if touching body fluids, but
the "entry" requirement for droplet precautions specifically targets the respiratory route
via a surgical mask.
Question 8
A nurse is teaching a client about a low-sodium diet. Which of the following food choices by the
client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) Canned tomato soup
B) Smoked turkey breast
C) Fresh orange slices
D) Pickled cucumbers
E) Frozen pepperoni pizza
Correct Answer: C) Fresh orange slices
Rationale: Fresh fruits and vegetables are naturally low in sodium. Canned soups,
processed meats (smoked turkey), pickled items, and frozen convenience foods (pizza) are
, 4
significantly high in sodium due to preservatives and flavoring agents. This question tests
the nurse's ability to identify "whole" vs "processed" foods.
Question 9
A nurse is evaluating a client's use of a cane. Which of the following actions indicates the client
is using the cane correctly?
A) The client holds the cane on the weaker side of the body.
B) The client moves the stronger leg forward first.
C) The client holds the cane on the stronger side of the body.
D) The client keeps the cane 12 inches in front of the feet.
E) The client leans their full body weight onto the cane.
Correct Answer: C) The client holds the cane on the stronger side of the body.
Rationale: A cane should be held on the unaffected (stronger) side to provide support and
better balance for the opposite (weaker) leg. The cane is moved forward first, followed by
the weaker leg, and then the stronger leg. Holding it on the weak side or leaning full weight
on it would decrease stability.
Question 10
A nurse is documenting in a client's medical record. Which of the following entries is an example
of objective data?
A) "Client reports feeling dizzy when standing."
B) "Client states, 'I have a sharp pain in my left hip.'"
C) "Client appears anxious regarding the procedure."
D) "Client's skin is diaphoretic and pale."
E) "Client says they are worried about their insurance."
Correct Answer: D) "Client's skin is diaphoretic and pale."
Rationale: Objective data is observable and measurable information (signs). Diaphoresis
(sweating) and pallor (paleness) can be seen and verified by the nurse. Options A, B, and E
are subjective data (symptoms) because they represent the client's feelings or verbal
statements. Option C is an interpretation or inference, which should be avoided in objective
documentation; instead, the nurse should describe the behaviors that make the client
"appear" anxious.
Question 11
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A) Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed.
B) Use a square knot to secure the restraints.
C) Ensure that two fingers can be inserted under the restraint.
D) Remove the restraints every 4 hours for range-of-motion exercises.
E) Renew the restraint prescription every 48 hours.
