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Examen

Barkley PMHNP Exam | Latest 2025–2026 Revised Questions & Correct Detailed Answers Verified

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Escrito en
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Prepare with the Barkley PMHNP – Latest 2025–2026 Revised Exam Questions and Correct Detailed Answers, authored by Barkley & Associates, Inc. This comprehensive resource includes verified questions with in-depth rationales covering psychiatric assessment, DSM-5-TR diagnoses, psychopharmacology, psychotherapy modalities, ethics, and clinical decision-making, helping PMHNP students and candidates confidently master content and succeed on certification exams.

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BARKLEY PMHNP
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Institución
BARKLEY PMHNP
Grado
BARKLEY PMHNP

Información del documento

Subido en
17 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
175
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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EY
ESTPMHNP
2025BARKLEY
- 2026
LATEST
REVISED
PMHNP
2025 - EXAM
2026
LATEST
REVISED
QUESTIONS
2025 - EXAM
2026AND
REVISED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
EXAM
AND
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
ANSWERS
AND
DETAILED
CORRECT
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
DETAILED
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
PASSED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
SCOREPASSED
A+.pdf
ALREADY
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BARKLEY PMHNP LATEST REVISED
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED COMPLETE SOLUTION)
ALREADY PASSED SCORE A+



You have been treating Antoine for his cocaine addiction. He comes to your office drunk and high on
marijuana and says that you "can't say anything about it" because he didn't use cocaine. Antoine has
used many other narcotics besides cocaine and has not followed the rehabilitation program you had
outlined for him. Moreover, he has failed to pay for your services. Which of the following should you
do?

A. Call security.

B. Give the patient notice and then dismiss him.

C. Keep treating the patient, but sue him.

D. Contact your supervisor.

A nurse practitioner (NP) has the right to dismiss a patient if he or she does not pay for services,
persistently refuses to adhere to NPS recommendations, or is abusive. Calling security or contacting a
supervisor are not steps in the process of dismissing a patient. The NP may continue to treat the patient
for this session, then file a lawsuit after dismissing him, but suits against patients are not typically filed
during continued treatment.




A 50-year-old father of twin high school graduates comes to your office concerned about the recent
stress stemming from both of his daughters entering college. He also has a history of aggressive
behavior linked with increased stress. Given this information, which of the following steps would be
LEAST important prior to starting the interview?

A. Arrange seating in your office so that a safe exit is possible, if necessary

B. Have someone stand by for assistance in case the individual is a threat

C. Consult with a member of the client's family concerning his or her impression of the problem

D. Sit far enough away from the client for personal space

Although it is important to consult family members to get their impression of the presiding problem in
the process of assisting a patient, the nurse practitioner (NP) should do so with the patient's permission,




EST 2025BARKLEY
- 2026 REVISED
PMHNP EXAM
LATEST
QUESTIONS
2025 - 2026AND
REVISED
CORRECT
EXAM
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
ANSWERS
16/01/2026
AND CORRECT
(VERIFIED
DETAILED
COMPLETE
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
COMPLETE
PASSEDSOLUTION)
SCORE A+.pdf
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,EY
ESTPMHNP
2025BARKLEY
- 2026
LATEST
REVISED
PMHNP
2025 - EXAM
2026
LATEST
REVISED
QUESTIONS
2025 - EXAM
2026AND
REVISED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
EXAM
AND
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
ANSWERS
AND
DETAILED
CORRECT
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
DETAILED
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
PASSED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
SCOREPASSED
A+.pdf
ALREADY
SCORE
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not prior to the interview. Proper seating arrangement, personal space, and having another person
standing by for assistance are all steps that the NP should take to protect him or herself against an
aggressive patient.




Amelia is a 66-year-old patient who has had three consecutive normal results of the Pap smear test.
Beyond the usual aches and pains of the aging process, she is otherwise healthy and has no history of
abnormal cervical cells or cervical cancer. When should the nurse practitioner examine her with a
follow-up Pap smear?

A. 2 years from now

B. Discontinue

C. Next year

D. 5 years from now

In patients with no history of abnormal cervical cells or cervical cancer, Pap smears should be
discontinued between the ages of 65 and 70 years after three consecutive normal results. No further
follow-up Pap smears are necessary after this point.




You are treating Pat for schizophrenia. She has begun developing signs of agranulocytosis and is
bothered by significant weight gain. Based on these findings, you determine that you need to change
her medication. Which of the following was she most likely prescribed originally?

A. Fluphenazine

B. Thiothixene

C. Clozapine

D. Haloperidol

Clozapine is strongly associated with a risk of agranulocytosis and. Like other second generation
antipsychotics (SGAs), is closely associated with significant weight gain. First-generation antipsychotics
(e.g. haloperidol, thiothixene, fluphenazine) may result in significant weight gain but are less likely to
produce agranulocytosis than SGAs; in addition, haloperidol and fluphenazine are agents within this
class associated with the least risk of weight gain and other metabolic side effects.




Your client, David, tells you that he was so angry the other day that he yelled at his wife over recent
purchases that cut deeply into their joint savings. You respond without judgment but with empathy,




EST 2025BARKLEY
- 2026 REVISED
PMHNP EXAM
LATEST
QUESTIONS
2025 - 2026AND
REVISED
CORRECT
EXAM
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
ANSWERS
16/01/2026
AND CORRECT
(VERIFIED
DETAILED
COMPLETE
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
COMPLETE
PASSEDSOLUTION)
SCORE A+.pdf
ALREADY P

,EY
ESTPMHNP
2025BARKLEY
- 2026
LATEST
REVISED
PMHNP
2025 - EXAM
2026
LATEST
REVISED
QUESTIONS
2025 - EXAM
2026AND
REVISED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
EXAM
AND
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
ANSWERS
AND
DETAILED
CORRECT
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
DETAILED
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
PASSED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
SCOREPASSED
A+.pdf
ALREADY
SCORE
P




permissiveness, and unconditional positive regard toward your patient. You ask him, "How do you feel
about that?" Of the following, from what psychotherapy theory are you most likely basing your
practice?

A. Person-Centered Therapy

B. Gestalt Therapy

C. Psychoanalytic Theory

D. Behavioral Therapy

Carl Rogers' model of Person-Centered Therapy focuses on developing the client's sense of self-
direction; in this model, the nurse practitioner (NP) expresses empathy, permissiveness, and
unconditional regard towards the patient, asking without judgment how the patient feels about his or
her actions. Behavioral Therapy stresses changing cognition, affect, and behavior by teaching the patient
new coping skills, improving communication, and breaking maladaptive habits. Gestalt Therapy would
emphasize that the patient's feelings and behaviors are ultimately his responsibility to address.
Psychoanalytic Theory would focus on making the unconscious conscious and strengthening the ego so
that the behavior is based more on reality and less on instinctual drives.




In 2016, the Centers for Disease Control reported a total of 9,272 tuberculosis cases in the United States,
a rate of 2.9 cases per 100,000. This was a decline of 3.6% from 2015. What is shown by this data?

A. Prevalence

B. Infectivity

C. Incidence

D. Trend

The description of the data shows prevalence, which is the proportion of a population that is affected by
a disease or disorder at a particular time. Incidence is the rate of new occurrences of a disease in a
population, thus indicating risk in a population; the data here clearly show the number of cases of
tuberculosis in 2016, not the rate at which these cases occurred. Trend refers to long-term movement or
change in frequency, whether upward or downward; as this scenario captures a specific moment in
time, trend does not apply. Infectivity refers to the proportion of individuals exposed to a disease who
will contract it; the figures in this scenario reflect spread but not rate of exposure.




Lisa is under great stress in her personal and professional life. She has noticed that, in conjunction with
her increased stress, she is becoming sick more often than usual. Which of the following hypothalamic
axes are most likely involved in this situation?




EST 2025BARKLEY
- 2026 REVISED
PMHNP EXAM
LATEST
QUESTIONS
2025 - 2026AND
REVISED
CORRECT
EXAM
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
ANSWERS
16/01/2026
AND CORRECT
(VERIFIED
DETAILED
COMPLETE
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
COMPLETE
PASSEDSOLUTION)
SCORE A+.pdf
ALREADY P

,EY
ESTPMHNP
2025BARKLEY
- 2026
LATEST
REVISED
PMHNP
2025 - EXAM
2026
LATEST
REVISED
QUESTIONS
2025 - EXAM
2026AND
REVISED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
EXAM
AND
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
CORRECT
ANSWERS
AND
DETAILED
CORRECT
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
DETAILED
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
COMPLETE
PASSED
ALREADY
SOLUTION)
SCOREPASSED
A+.pdf
ALREADY
SCORE
P




A. Hypothalamus-pituitary-circadian axis

B. Hypothalamus-pituitary-gonadal axis

C. Hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid axis

D. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis

The hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis releases corticotropin in times of stress, which can suppress
the immune system, thereby making a person more susceptible to infection and disease during times of
stress. The activity of the hypothalamus-pituitary-gonadal axis releases gonadotropin releasing hormone
and follicle stimulating hormone, both of which are linked to estrogen secretion in females and sperm
production in males, respectively. The hypothalamus-pituitary-thyroid axis regulates the basal metabolic
rate and regular neurologic function; although its activity can lead to stress, it is neither activated by
stress nor connected to the immune system. There is no hypothalamus- pituitary-circadian axis.




You are asked by the emergency room personnel to evaluate a patient who displays cognitive
impairment. Which of the following factors would most strongly indicate that the patient is experiencing
delirium rather than neurocognitive disorder?

A. Rapid onset of cognitive impairment

B. History of methamphetamine use

C. History of major depressive disorder

D. Altered state of consciousness

Rapid onset of cognitive impairment most often serves to distinguish delirium from neurocognitive
disorder (NCD), which typically has a gradual onset. An altered state of consciousness is a common
feature of NCD and delirium and would not be used to distinguish the two diagnoses. Patients who
develop major depressive disorder (MDD) late in life may be at increased risk for Alzheimer's disease.
Although use of and withdrawal from methamphetamine is associated with the development of
delirium, withdrawal from methamphetamine can produce mild NCD, and use of methamphetamine can
promote the emergence of NCD due to HIV infection.




Which of the following provides a biological history that explores through generations?

A. Vanderbilt Assessment Scale

B. Patient Health Questionnaire

C. Mini-Mental State Exam

D. Family genogram




EST 2025BARKLEY
- 2026 REVISED
PMHNP EXAM
LATEST
QUESTIONS
2025 - 2026AND
REVISED
CORRECT
EXAM
DETAILED
QUESTIONS
ANSWERS
16/01/2026
AND CORRECT
(VERIFIED
DETAILED
COMPLETE
ANSWERS
SOLUTION)
(VERIFIED
ALREADY
COMPLETE
PASSEDSOLUTION)
SCORE A+.pdf
ALREADY P
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