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ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2026/2027 – Actual Exam 130 Questions with Verified Answers & Expert Rationales Graded A+ | 100% Correct | Pass Guaranteed

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This document contains real ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam questions, updated for the 2026/2027 testing cycle, with a complete set of 130 questions. It includes verified answers with expert rationales covering medication classifications, mechanisms of action, adverse effects, contraindications, interactions, dosage safety, and nursing responsibilities. The content reflects actual proctored exam–style questions to support accurate preparation and confident performance.

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ATI RN Pharmacology
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ATI RN Pharmacology

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Subido en
9 de enero de 2026
Número de páginas
16
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam
2026/2027 – Actual Exam 130 Questions
with Verified Answers & Expert
Rationales Graded A+ | 100% Correct |
Pass Guaranteed

Q1 A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the
following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?

Answer: Swelling of the face, lips, or tongue

Rationale: Angioedema is a life-threatening adverse effect of ACE inhibitors (lisinopril) caused
by increased bradykinin levels. It requires immediate discontinuation and medical attention.

Q2 A client is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the
following symptoms?

Answer: Unusual bruising or pink-tinged urine

Rationale: These are signs of bleeding, which is the most serious adverse effect of warfarin due
to its anticoagulant action.

Q3 A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which of the following findings should
the nurse withhold the medication and notify the provider?

Answer: Apical pulse rate 52 beats per minute

Rationale: Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is less than 60 beats per minute in
adults due to risk of bradycardia and toxicity.

Q4 A client is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor for which of the following
adverse effects?

Answer: Hypokalemia

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes significant potassium loss in the distal
tubule, leading to hypokalemia.

,Q5 A nurse is reinforcing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which
of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Answer: "Take this medication with meals."

Rationale: Taking metformin with food reduces gastrointestinal side effects (nausea, diarrhea,
abdominal discomfort).

Q6 A client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus is starting insulin glargine. The nurse should
instruct the client to:

Answer: "Do not mix this insulin with any other insulin."

Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin and must not be mixed with other insulins to
preserve its 24-hour duration of action.

Q7 A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV heparin. The aPTT is 90 seconds
(therapeutic range 60–80 seconds). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Answer: Decrease the heparin infusion rate

Rationale: aPTT above the therapeutic range indicates increased risk of bleeding; the infusion
rate should be decreased per protocol.

Q8 A client is prescribed enoxaparin for deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis. The nurse should
instruct the client to administer the medication:

Answer: In the abdomen, at least 2 inches away from the umbilicus

Rationale: The abdomen is the preferred site for subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin
injections due to consistent absorption and lower risk of bruising.

Q9 A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should
instruct the client to avoid taking which of the following medications?

Answer: Omeprazole

Rationale: Omeprazole inhibits CYP2C19, reducing the conversion of clopidogrel to its active
metabolite and decreasing its antiplatelet effectiveness.

Q10 A client is prescribed spironolactone for heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which
of the following adverse effects?

Answer: Hyperkalemia

, Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and can cause hyperkalemia,
especially when combined with ACE inhibitors or ARBs.

Q11 A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for theophylline. The nurse should
monitor serum theophylline levels to prevent which of the following adverse effects?

Answer: Tachycardia and dysrhythmias

Rationale: Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic index; toxicity can cause serious cardiac
effects, including tachycardia and dysrhythmias.

Q12 A client is prescribed methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should instruct the
client to report which of the following symptoms immediately?

Answer: Sore throat and fever

Rationale: Methotrexate is myelosuppressive; sore throat and fever may indicate infection due
to leukopenia.

Q13 A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse include?

Answer: "Take this medication on an empty stomach 30 to 60 minutes before breakfast."

Rationale: Food significantly reduces levothyroxine absorption; it should be taken on an empty
stomach.

Q14 A client is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. The nurse should monitor for which
of the following adverse effects?

Answer: Pulmonary toxicity

Rationale: Amiodarone can cause potentially fatal pulmonary toxicity (interstitial
pneumonitis/fibrosis); clients should be monitored for dyspnea and cough.

Q15 A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin. The nurse should
monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Answer: Red man syndrome

Rationale: Rapid infusion of vancomycin can cause red man syndrome (flushing, hypotension,
rash) due to histamine release.

Q16 A client is prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder. The nurse should instruct the client to:

Answer: "Maintain consistent salt and fluid intake."
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