CNOR (CERTIFIED NURSE OPERATING
ROOM) CERTIFICATION EXAM 2 With
Actual Questions & Verified Answers
,Plus Explained Rationales/Expert
Verified For Guaranteed Pass
2026/Latest Update/Instant Download
Pdf
1. A patient scheduled for surgery signs the consent form but later
says they do not remember being told about risks. What is the
appropriate action by the perioperative nurse?
A. Proceed since the consent form is signed.
B. Pause the procedure and confirm the patient’s
understanding and opportunity to ask questions.
C. Ask the surgeon to re-explain risks after anesthesia induction.
D. Notify the surgical team to proceed and document the
patient’s statement.
Rationale: Informed consent requires that the patient
understands the risks and has opportunity to ask questions; if
they express misunderstanding, the nurse should pause and
advocate for clarification.
2. Preoperative verification includes which of the following?
A. Confirming nurse staffing for the case.
B. Verifying correct patient identity, site/side, and procedure.
, C. Checking surgical instrument counts before incision.
D. Obtaining baseline vital signs.
Rationale: The Universal Protocol includes verification of patient
identity, surgical site/side, and procedure before anesthesia or
incision to prevent wrong-site surgery.
3. What is the recommended time for surgical hand antisepsis
prior to donning sterile gown and gloves?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3–5 minutes (or as per facility policy) using approved scrub
method.
D. 10 minutes
Rationale: Proper surgical hand antisepsis (scrub or hand-rub)
generally requires 3–5 minutes (or the facility’s validated time)
to reduce microbial load effectively.
4. Intraoperatively, the nurse notices the surgical count is off by
one sponge. What should the nurse do?
A. Document and proceed with closure.
B. Notify the surgeon and initiate the count resolution process
(search, imaging if needed).
C. Wait until after the procedure to address the discrepancy.
D. Ask the surgical tech to recount silently and resume.
Rationale: A missing item must be immediately addressed—
notify the surgeon, perform required search, and possibly
imaging before closure to ensure patient safety.
5. Which wound classification corresponds to a gastrointestinal
tract surgery with no unusual contamination?
A. Class I (Clean)
B. Class II (Clean-Contaminated)
, C. Class III (Contaminated)
D. Class IV (Dirty/Infected)
Rationale: GI tract surgery with controlled entry and no unusual
contamination is typically classified as clean-contaminated
(Class II). So the correct answer is Class II. (Please note: the
above distractors reflect classification definitions.)
6. A patient develops sudden tachycardia, muscle rigidity, and
hyperthermia during anesthesia. The most likely cause is:
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Local anesthetic systemic toxicity
D. Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is characterized by rapid
onset of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and can be
triggered by certain anesthetic agents—requires immediate
intervention.
7. Which of the following is the best nursing action when
positioning a patient for lateral decubitus surgery?
A. Allowing the dependent arm to hang freely.
B. Padding the dependent shoulder and ensuring pressure
protection of bony prominences.
C. Elevating the non-operative side arm above the head without
support.
D. Ignoring skin prep if positioning takes long.
Rationale: Proper positioning includes protecting dependent
structures, using padding, avoiding compression of nerves and
vascular structures, especially in lateral decubitus.
8. Which statement about surgical attire zones is correct?
A. Scrubs may be worn into unrestricted and restricted zones
, interchangeably.
B. In a restricted zone, head covering, mask, and surgical attire
must be worn.
C. The semi-restricted zone allows street clothes with a lab
coat.
D. No labeling is required for single-use items in the
non-restricted zone.
Rationale: In the restricted zone of the OR suite, surgical attire
including head covering and mask is required to maintain
asepsis and reduce contamination.
9. The instrument sterilization process has a biological indicator
that remains negative for growth at 24 hours. What does this
indicate?
A. The sterilization failed.
B. The sterilization cycle was effective.
C. Chemical indicator should be ignored.
D. Instruments must be resterilized anyway.
Rationale: A negative biological indicator growth means the
sterilization process achieved the required microbial kill,
indicating a successful cycle.
10. A perioperative nurse delegates instrument count
responsibilities to a scrub tech. Which statement reflects
correct accountability?
A. The nurse is no longer accountable since the task was
delegated.
B. The nurse retains accountability and must ensure the count
was performed correctly.
C. Delegation transfers full responsibility to the tech.
D. The nurse only needs to check the final documentation.
Rationale: Delegation does not remove the nurse’s
ROOM) CERTIFICATION EXAM 2 With
Actual Questions & Verified Answers
,Plus Explained Rationales/Expert
Verified For Guaranteed Pass
2026/Latest Update/Instant Download
1. A patient scheduled for surgery signs the consent form but later
says they do not remember being told about risks. What is the
appropriate action by the perioperative nurse?
A. Proceed since the consent form is signed.
B. Pause the procedure and confirm the patient’s
understanding and opportunity to ask questions.
C. Ask the surgeon to re-explain risks after anesthesia induction.
D. Notify the surgical team to proceed and document the
patient’s statement.
Rationale: Informed consent requires that the patient
understands the risks and has opportunity to ask questions; if
they express misunderstanding, the nurse should pause and
advocate for clarification.
2. Preoperative verification includes which of the following?
A. Confirming nurse staffing for the case.
B. Verifying correct patient identity, site/side, and procedure.
, C. Checking surgical instrument counts before incision.
D. Obtaining baseline vital signs.
Rationale: The Universal Protocol includes verification of patient
identity, surgical site/side, and procedure before anesthesia or
incision to prevent wrong-site surgery.
3. What is the recommended time for surgical hand antisepsis
prior to donning sterile gown and gloves?
A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 3–5 minutes (or as per facility policy) using approved scrub
method.
D. 10 minutes
Rationale: Proper surgical hand antisepsis (scrub or hand-rub)
generally requires 3–5 minutes (or the facility’s validated time)
to reduce microbial load effectively.
4. Intraoperatively, the nurse notices the surgical count is off by
one sponge. What should the nurse do?
A. Document and proceed with closure.
B. Notify the surgeon and initiate the count resolution process
(search, imaging if needed).
C. Wait until after the procedure to address the discrepancy.
D. Ask the surgical tech to recount silently and resume.
Rationale: A missing item must be immediately addressed—
notify the surgeon, perform required search, and possibly
imaging before closure to ensure patient safety.
5. Which wound classification corresponds to a gastrointestinal
tract surgery with no unusual contamination?
A. Class I (Clean)
B. Class II (Clean-Contaminated)
, C. Class III (Contaminated)
D. Class IV (Dirty/Infected)
Rationale: GI tract surgery with controlled entry and no unusual
contamination is typically classified as clean-contaminated
(Class II). So the correct answer is Class II. (Please note: the
above distractors reflect classification definitions.)
6. A patient develops sudden tachycardia, muscle rigidity, and
hyperthermia during anesthesia. The most likely cause is:
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Local anesthetic systemic toxicity
D. Hypovolemic shock
Rationale: Malignant hyperthermia is characterized by rapid
onset of muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and can be
triggered by certain anesthetic agents—requires immediate
intervention.
7. Which of the following is the best nursing action when
positioning a patient for lateral decubitus surgery?
A. Allowing the dependent arm to hang freely.
B. Padding the dependent shoulder and ensuring pressure
protection of bony prominences.
C. Elevating the non-operative side arm above the head without
support.
D. Ignoring skin prep if positioning takes long.
Rationale: Proper positioning includes protecting dependent
structures, using padding, avoiding compression of nerves and
vascular structures, especially in lateral decubitus.
8. Which statement about surgical attire zones is correct?
A. Scrubs may be worn into unrestricted and restricted zones
, interchangeably.
B. In a restricted zone, head covering, mask, and surgical attire
must be worn.
C. The semi-restricted zone allows street clothes with a lab
coat.
D. No labeling is required for single-use items in the
non-restricted zone.
Rationale: In the restricted zone of the OR suite, surgical attire
including head covering and mask is required to maintain
asepsis and reduce contamination.
9. The instrument sterilization process has a biological indicator
that remains negative for growth at 24 hours. What does this
indicate?
A. The sterilization failed.
B. The sterilization cycle was effective.
C. Chemical indicator should be ignored.
D. Instruments must be resterilized anyway.
Rationale: A negative biological indicator growth means the
sterilization process achieved the required microbial kill,
indicating a successful cycle.
10. A perioperative nurse delegates instrument count
responsibilities to a scrub tech. Which statement reflects
correct accountability?
A. The nurse is no longer accountable since the task was
delegated.
B. The nurse retains accountability and must ensure the count
was performed correctly.
C. Delegation transfers full responsibility to the tech.
D. The nurse only needs to check the final documentation.
Rationale: Delegation does not remove the nurse’s
