GRAY'S ANATOMY FOR STUDENTS
5TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)RICHARD L. DRAKE
TEST BANK
1
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — What is anatomy?
Stem
A 58-year-old patient is unable to dorsiflex the foot after a
midshaft tibial fracture. During exam you note loss of toe
extension and foot drop, but tibialis posterior function
(inversion) is preserved. Based on anatomical compartments
and nerve distribution, which structural injury best explains this
deficit?
A. Compression of tibial nerve in the deep posterior
compartment
B. Laceration of the common fibular (peroneal) nerve at the
fibular neck
C. Injury to the superficial fibular nerve within the lateral
,compartment
D. Damage to the deep fibular nerve at the anterior
compartment near the ankle
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
Correct (B): The common fibular nerve winds around the fibular
neck and provides motor fibers to the anterior compartment
(deep fibular) and lateral compartment (superficial fibular) via
branches. An injury at the fibular neck commonly causes foot
drop and loss of toe extension while sparing tibial-innervated
inversion. This fits Gray’s description of compartmentalized
innervation and vulnerability at the fibular neck.
Incorrect (A): Tibial nerve injury would impair plantarflexion
and inversion, not produce isolated dorsiflexion loss.
Incorrect (C): Superficial fibular nerve supplies foot eversion
and would not primarily cause loss of dorsiflexion or toe
extension.
Incorrect (D): Injury to the deep fibular nerve at the ankle
causes sensory changes between toes and local motor deficits
but is less consistent with post-fracture dysfunction at the
fibular neck; the pattern described implicates a more proximal
common fibular lesion.
Teaching Point
Common fibular nerve at fibular neck causes foot drop; anterior
compartment dorsiflexors are affected.
,Citation (Simplified APA)
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
2
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Body systems
Stem
A primary-care clinician must explain to a patient how systemic
disease can produce edema. Which explanation, grounded in
functional anatomy of body systems, best links structure to the
development of peripheral pitting edema?
A. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure from plasma proteins
accumulating in tissue spaces
B. Obstruction of venous return elevating hydrostatic pressure
within capillary beds
C. Increased lymphatic pumping removing interstitial fluid too
rapidly
D. Constriction of arterioles reducing capillary hydrostatic
pressure
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
Correct (B): Venous obstruction increases downstream capillary
hydrostatic pressure, favoring fluid filtration into interstitial
spaces and producing pitting edema. Gray’s system organization
, links circulatory return and capillary dynamics to fluid balance.
Incorrect (A): Higher interstitial oncotic pressure is uncommon;
edema usually arises from decreased plasma oncotic pressure,
not increased interstitial protein accumulation.
Incorrect (C): Increased lymphatic pumping would reduce
interstitial fluid, not cause edema.
Incorrect (D): Arteriolar constriction lowers capillary hydrostatic
pressure and would reduce filtration, making edema less likely.
Teaching Point
Venous outflow obstruction raises capillary hydrostatic pressure
→ transudation → pitting edema.
Citation (Simplified APA)
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
3
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Imaging
Stem
A pregnant patient in her first trimester presents with
suspected appendicitis. Which imaging strategy best balances
diagnostic accuracy with fetal safety according to basic imaging
principles in the textbook?
A. Immediate contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis
B. Ultrasound first; if nondiagnostic, MRI without ionizing
radiation
5TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)RICHARD L. DRAKE
TEST BANK
1
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — What is anatomy?
Stem
A 58-year-old patient is unable to dorsiflex the foot after a
midshaft tibial fracture. During exam you note loss of toe
extension and foot drop, but tibialis posterior function
(inversion) is preserved. Based on anatomical compartments
and nerve distribution, which structural injury best explains this
deficit?
A. Compression of tibial nerve in the deep posterior
compartment
B. Laceration of the common fibular (peroneal) nerve at the
fibular neck
C. Injury to the superficial fibular nerve within the lateral
,compartment
D. Damage to the deep fibular nerve at the anterior
compartment near the ankle
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
Correct (B): The common fibular nerve winds around the fibular
neck and provides motor fibers to the anterior compartment
(deep fibular) and lateral compartment (superficial fibular) via
branches. An injury at the fibular neck commonly causes foot
drop and loss of toe extension while sparing tibial-innervated
inversion. This fits Gray’s description of compartmentalized
innervation and vulnerability at the fibular neck.
Incorrect (A): Tibial nerve injury would impair plantarflexion
and inversion, not produce isolated dorsiflexion loss.
Incorrect (C): Superficial fibular nerve supplies foot eversion
and would not primarily cause loss of dorsiflexion or toe
extension.
Incorrect (D): Injury to the deep fibular nerve at the ankle
causes sensory changes between toes and local motor deficits
but is less consistent with post-fracture dysfunction at the
fibular neck; the pattern described implicates a more proximal
common fibular lesion.
Teaching Point
Common fibular nerve at fibular neck causes foot drop; anterior
compartment dorsiflexors are affected.
,Citation (Simplified APA)
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
2
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Body systems
Stem
A primary-care clinician must explain to a patient how systemic
disease can produce edema. Which explanation, grounded in
functional anatomy of body systems, best links structure to the
development of peripheral pitting edema?
A. Increased interstitial oncotic pressure from plasma proteins
accumulating in tissue spaces
B. Obstruction of venous return elevating hydrostatic pressure
within capillary beds
C. Increased lymphatic pumping removing interstitial fluid too
rapidly
D. Constriction of arterioles reducing capillary hydrostatic
pressure
Correct Answer
B
Rationales
Correct (B): Venous obstruction increases downstream capillary
hydrostatic pressure, favoring fluid filtration into interstitial
spaces and producing pitting edema. Gray’s system organization
, links circulatory return and capillary dynamics to fluid balance.
Incorrect (A): Higher interstitial oncotic pressure is uncommon;
edema usually arises from decreased plasma oncotic pressure,
not increased interstitial protein accumulation.
Incorrect (C): Increased lymphatic pumping would reduce
interstitial fluid, not cause edema.
Incorrect (D): Arteriolar constriction lowers capillary hydrostatic
pressure and would reduce filtration, making edema less likely.
Teaching Point
Venous outflow obstruction raises capillary hydrostatic pressure
→ transudation → pitting edema.
Citation (Simplified APA)
Drake, R. L. (2024). Gray’s Anatomy for Students (5th Ed.). Ch. 1.
3
Reference
Ch. 1 — The Body — Imaging
Stem
A pregnant patient in her first trimester presents with
suspected appendicitis. Which imaging strategy best balances
diagnostic accuracy with fetal safety according to basic imaging
principles in the textbook?
A. Immediate contrast-enhanced CT of the abdomen and pelvis
B. Ultrasound first; if nondiagnostic, MRI without ionizing
radiation
