Certified Registered Nurse Anesthetist
(CRNA) practice exam Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A | Instant
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1. Which of the following anesthetic agents is most likely to cause malignant
hyperthermia?
A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Midazolam
D. Nitrous oxide
Malignant hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening reaction to volatile
anesthetics such as sevoflurane and succinylcholine. Propofol, midazolam, and
nitrous oxide are generally safe in MH-susceptible patients.
2. A patient with a history of severe asthma requires general anesthesia.
Which induction agent is preferred?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopental
Propofol is preferred because it has bronchodilatory properties. Ketamine also
bronchodilates but may increase secretions. Etomidate and thiopental do not
provide significant bronchodilation.
3. The MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) of an inhaled anesthetic refers
to:
A. The concentration at which the patient is awake
B. The concentration that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response
,to a surgical stimulus
C. The blood concentration required for sedation
D. The plasma half-life of the agent
MAC is a standard measure of potency for inhaled anesthetics, representing the
concentration needed to prevent movement in 50% of patients undergoing a
standard surgical stimulus.
4. During spinal anesthesia, a patient develops hypotension. The most
appropriate first intervention is:
A. Administer epinephrine
B. Administer intravenous fluids and vasopressors
C. Position the patient supine with legs down
D. Administer high-dose opioids
Hypotension during spinal anesthesia is primarily due to sympathetic blockade
causing vasodilation. IV fluids and vasopressors (like phenylephrine) are first-
line treatments.
5. Which opioid has the shortest duration of action when administered
intravenously?
A. Morphine
B. Hydromorphone
C. Fentanyl
D. Remifentanil
Remifentanil is metabolized by plasma esterases, giving it an ultra-short
duration regardless of infusion length, making it ideal for titratable anesthesia.
6. A patient presents with a difficult airway. Which device is most
appropriate as a first-line advanced airway tool?
A. Laryngeal mask airway
B. Video laryngoscope
C. Classic endotracheal tube with direct laryngoscopy
D. Nasopharyngeal airway
, Video laryngoscopes improve glottic visualization and are now recommended
as a first-line tool in difficult airway scenarios.
7. Which local anesthetic is considered most cardiotoxic?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Levobupivacaine
Bupivacaine and levobupivacaine have the highest cardiotoxic potential among
commonly used local anesthetics, with levobupivacaine slightly safer than
racemic bupivacaine.
8. In a patient with hepatic failure, which anesthetic agent requires the most
caution due to metabolism?
A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Etomidate
Propofol is hepatically metabolized, so impaired liver function can prolong its
effects. Volatile agents are mostly eliminated via lungs, and etomidate has
minimal hepatic metabolism.
9. Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity during
anesthesia?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin’s effect on the myocardium, increasing the
risk of arrhythmias under anesthesia.
10. A patient undergoing a cesarean section under epidural anesthesia
complains of a “metallic taste” and tinnitus. This is most likely due to:
(CRNA) practice exam Questions And
Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1. Which of the following anesthetic agents is most likely to cause malignant
hyperthermia?
A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Midazolam
D. Nitrous oxide
Malignant hyperthermia is a rare, life-threatening reaction to volatile
anesthetics such as sevoflurane and succinylcholine. Propofol, midazolam, and
nitrous oxide are generally safe in MH-susceptible patients.
2. A patient with a history of severe asthma requires general anesthesia.
Which induction agent is preferred?
A. Propofol
B. Ketamine
C. Etomidate
D. Thiopental
Propofol is preferred because it has bronchodilatory properties. Ketamine also
bronchodilates but may increase secretions. Etomidate and thiopental do not
provide significant bronchodilation.
3. The MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) of an inhaled anesthetic refers
to:
A. The concentration at which the patient is awake
B. The concentration that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response
,to a surgical stimulus
C. The blood concentration required for sedation
D. The plasma half-life of the agent
MAC is a standard measure of potency for inhaled anesthetics, representing the
concentration needed to prevent movement in 50% of patients undergoing a
standard surgical stimulus.
4. During spinal anesthesia, a patient develops hypotension. The most
appropriate first intervention is:
A. Administer epinephrine
B. Administer intravenous fluids and vasopressors
C. Position the patient supine with legs down
D. Administer high-dose opioids
Hypotension during spinal anesthesia is primarily due to sympathetic blockade
causing vasodilation. IV fluids and vasopressors (like phenylephrine) are first-
line treatments.
5. Which opioid has the shortest duration of action when administered
intravenously?
A. Morphine
B. Hydromorphone
C. Fentanyl
D. Remifentanil
Remifentanil is metabolized by plasma esterases, giving it an ultra-short
duration regardless of infusion length, making it ideal for titratable anesthesia.
6. A patient presents with a difficult airway. Which device is most
appropriate as a first-line advanced airway tool?
A. Laryngeal mask airway
B. Video laryngoscope
C. Classic endotracheal tube with direct laryngoscopy
D. Nasopharyngeal airway
, Video laryngoscopes improve glottic visualization and are now recommended
as a first-line tool in difficult airway scenarios.
7. Which local anesthetic is considered most cardiotoxic?
A. Lidocaine
B. Bupivacaine
C. Ropivacaine
D. Levobupivacaine
Bupivacaine and levobupivacaine have the highest cardiotoxic potential among
commonly used local anesthetics, with levobupivacaine slightly safer than
racemic bupivacaine.
8. In a patient with hepatic failure, which anesthetic agent requires the most
caution due to metabolism?
A. Propofol
B. Sevoflurane
C. Nitrous oxide
D. Etomidate
Propofol is hepatically metabolized, so impaired liver function can prolong its
effects. Volatile agents are mostly eliminated via lungs, and etomidate has
minimal hepatic metabolism.
9. Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity during
anesthesia?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Hypokalemia
Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin’s effect on the myocardium, increasing the
risk of arrhythmias under anesthesia.
10. A patient undergoing a cesarean section under epidural anesthesia
complains of a “metallic taste” and tinnitus. This is most likely due to:
