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APEA MAJOR QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS

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Which one of the following is an ethical infraction when using electronic medical records? - ANSWERSCopying and pasting outdated notes Practice authority for advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) is granted by: - ANSWERSeach state's board of nursing Which answer is true about full practice authority for nurse practitioners? - ANSWERSFull practice authority is the authorization of nurse practitioners to evaluate patients; diagnose, order and interpret diagnostic tests; and to initiate and manage treatments—including prescribing medications—without required physical collaboration or supervision. Which of the following scenarios reflects "incident to" billing for Medicare-covered services? - ANSWERSAn NP bills 100% of the allowable Medicare fee schedule for follow-up care The scope of practice for nurse practitioners is determined by: - ANSWERSthe state government Medicare Part B covers - ANSWERSphysician services, outpatient services, and durable medical equipment Select the statement that best describes the role of a women's health nurse practitioner (WHNP) - ANSWERSThe role of the WHNP is to assess, diagnose, and treat the healthcare needs of women throughout their lifespan Statistical significance is represented by the P value. Which statement about P value is correct? - ANSWERS When counseling a patient diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) or panic disorder, lifestyle modifications to decrease symptoms should include - ANSWERSexercising vigorously for 20 minutes three times a week Which of the following is used to evaluate suspected obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) in patients who present with a sleep disorder? - ANSWERSPolysomnography Why is it often challenging to differentiate between the diagnosis of major depressive disorder (MDD) and bipolar disorder? - ANSWERSPatients with bipolar disorder often present for treatment during their low mood

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Written in
2025/2026
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APEA MAJOR QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Which one of the following is an ethical infraction when using electronic medical
records? - ANSWERSCopying and pasting outdated notes

Practice authority for advanced practice registered nurses (APRNs) is granted by: -
ANSWERSeach state's board of nursing

Which answer is true about full practice authority for nurse practitioners? -
ANSWERSFull practice authority is the authorization of nurse practitioners to evaluate
patients; diagnose, order and interpret diagnostic tests; and to initiate and manage
treatments—including prescribing medications—without required physical collaboration
or supervision.

Which of the following scenarios reflects "incident to" billing for Medicare-covered
services? - ANSWERSAn NP bills 100% of the allowable Medicare fee schedule for
follow-up care

The scope of practice for nurse practitioners is determined by: - ANSWERSthe state
government

Medicare Part B covers - ANSWERSphysician services, outpatient services, and
durable medical equipment

Select the statement that best describes the role of a women's health nurse practitioner
(WHNP) - ANSWERSThe role of the WHNP is to assess, diagnose, and treat the
healthcare needs of women throughout their lifespan

Statistical significance is represented by the P value. Which statement about P value is
correct? - ANSWERS

When counseling a patient diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) or panic
disorder, lifestyle modifications to decrease symptoms should include -
ANSWERSexercising vigorously for 20 minutes three times a week

Which of the following is used to evaluate suspected obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) in
patients who present with a sleep disorder? - ANSWERSPolysomnography

Why is it often challenging to differentiate between the diagnosis of major depressive
disorder (MDD) and bipolar disorder? - ANSWERSPatients with bipolar disorder often
present for treatment during their low mood

,Which statement about grief/bereavement and major depressive disorder (MDD) is
correct? - ANSWERSDepression cannot be distinguished from grief/bereavement for at
least 1 year after a loss

The first-line drug class for the treatment of patients with generalized anxiety disorder
(GAD) is - ANSWERSselective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

Which of the following tools is considered the validated screening tool for identifying
generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? - ANSWERSGeneralized Anxiety Disorder
questionnaire

When initiating pharmacologic treatment for depression, what is the recommended
interval for monitoring therapeutic effects? - ANSWERSEvery 2-4 weeks until
therapeutic dose is reached

According to DSM-5 criteria, what core symptoms must be present to diagnosis major
depressive disorder (MDD)? - ANSWERSAnhedonia

Because of the high prevalence of postpartum depression, screening is recommended
for all women in the perinatal period. The evidence-based tool recommended for
outpatient perinatal and postpartum depression screening is the: - ANSWERSEdinburgh
scale

The highly sensitive and specific assessment tool that should be used in primary care to
evaluate patients suspected of alcohol use disorder (AUD) is: - ANSWERSAUDIT

Which one of the following physical attributes is most common in patients who have
obstructive sleep apnea? - ANSWERSEnlarged neck circumference

The medication approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in
the treatment of patients diagnosed with opioid use disorder (OUD) is: -
ANSWERSbuprenorphine

When prescribing zolpidem for patients diagnosed with insomnia, it is important to
stress that the potentially serious side effect of this medication is - ANSWERSamnesia

Which of the following is an accepted instrument for initial general depression screening
in the outpatient setting? - ANSWERSPatient Health Questionnaire-2 (PHQ-2)

When considering primary treatment goals for chronic insomnia, the priorities should
include: - ANSWERSimproving symptoms of insomnia-related daytime impairment

Which of the following is the best choice for treating community-acquired pneumonia
(CAP) in an outpatient with no antibiotic use in the prior 3 months? -
ANSWERSAzithromycin monotherapy

,Expiratory airway restriction is a distinct characteristic of: - ANSWERSchronic
obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

The tool used to confirm a suspected diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) is: - ANSWERSspirometry.

Differential diagnoses for the common cold would NOT include: - ANSWERSvaricella.

When evaluating a patient's asthma symptom control over the prior 4 weeks, which of
the following should be documented? - ANSWERSFrequency of nighttime awakening
due to asthma symptoms

The CURB-65 criteria (confusion, urea, respiratory rate, blood pressure, age 65 or
older) is a decision making tool used in the treatment of pneumonia when determining
whether: - ANSWERSinpatient management is advisable.

Which one of the following has been proven effective in symptom management for the
common cold? - ANSWERSAcetaminophen

When evaluating a patient who reports variable expiratory airflow restriction triggered by
exercise, allergens, or irritant exposure, the differential diagnosis list should include: -
ANSWERSasthma.

For patients diagnosed with bronchitis, which drug class is associated with improvement
in cough without wheezing? - ANSWERSExpectorants

Which of the following statements about the use of codeine-based cough suppressants
in viral upper respiratory illness is correct? - ANSWERSCodeine-based cough
suppressants are not recommended due to their potential to induce respiratory
depression.

While evaluating a patient with cough, the NP notes egophony over the middle lobe of
the right lung. This finding raises concern for: - ANSWERSa pulmonary consolidation.

When considering a diagnosis of acute bacterial respiratory illness, the MOST
concerning sign is: - ANSWERSworsening symptoms with fever.

When initiating treatment for mild asthma according to guidelines from the Global
Initiative for Asthma (GINA), the first step is to prescribe a: - ANSWERSlow-dose
inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and formoterol preparation.

Which one of the following raises concern for worsening asthma? - ANSWERSAny
number of nighttime symptoms

, A combination of breathing through pursed lips, use of accessory chest muscles, and
increased anteroposterior chest diameter is characteristic of what disease process? -
ANSWERSChronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Which one of the following is expected between asthma exacerbations? - ANSWERSAn
absence of symptoms

A patient asks about the optimal gestational age to perform first trimester screening.
She wants to maximize Trisomy 21 detection and decrease the possibility of false-
positive results. Based on her goal, when should a cell-free DNA test be performed? -
ANSWERSAt 11 weeks' gestation

A patient presents for an initial obstetric physical and reports a family history of autism.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to include in her prenatal screening? -
ANSWERSFragile X syndrome (FMR1 gene)

A multiparous pregnant woman at 36 weeks' gestation complains about having only one
or two bowel movements each week. She has been eating fresh vegetables and
drinking at least 64 ounces of water daily. Her provider recommends a bulk-forming
laxative. What is the correct way to explain how it works? - ANSWERSIt absorbs water
and expands and increases moisture in the stool, making it easier to pass.

Which category of medication is associated with the highest risk for fetal growth
restriction (FGR)? - ANSWERSAntiepileptic drugs

A 25-year-old primigravida woman presents for an initial prenatal exam. Based on her
last menstrual period (LMP), her calculated estimated gestational age (EGA) is 12
weeks. Based on her estimated gestational age, the fundus should be palpable: -
ANSWERSjust above her pubic bone.

During an initial obstetric physical exam, which finding would be considered normal for
the cardiovascular portion of the examination? - ANSWERSAn S3 gallop

When talking with a pregnant patient about hormonal effects she may be experiencing,
what system is most likely to be noticeably slowed in response to her pregnancy
progesterone levels? - ANSWERSBowel evacuation

At what point would a woman exposed to congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) have an
increased risk of infant infection? - ANSWERSDuring periconception or the first
trimester

A pregnant patient in her second trimester has noticed more heartburn and flatulence.
The WHNP explains that these symptoms are most likely the result of: -
ANSWERSdecreased gastric acidity.
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