HESI RN MED SURG VERSION A & VERSION B 2025-2026
MOST RECENT EXAM ACTUAL COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ / NEWEST EXAM
/ JUST RELEASED!!
A 77-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with confusion
and anorexia of several days' duration. Additional symptoms
reported are nausea and vomiting, and current complaints of a
headache. The client's pulse rate is 43 beats/min. The nurse is
most concerned about the client's history related to which
medication? A. Warfarin B. Ibuprofen C.
Nitroglyceri
n D.
Digoxin - ANSWER-D
Rationale:Older persons are particularly susceptible to the
buildup of cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin or digitoxin
(medications derived from digitalis), to a toxic level in their
systems. Toxicity can cause anorexia, nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. Options A, B, and C are
unlikely to result in the symptoms described.
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow.
Which assessment finding has the highest priority and
requires immediate intervention? A.
Ecchymosis over the right
elbow area B.
,Deep unrelenting pain in the
right arm C.
An edematous right
elbow D.
The presence of crepitus in the right elbow - ANSWER-B
Rationale:Compartment syndrome is a condition involving
increased pressure and constriction of the nerves and vessels
within an anatomic compartment, causing pain uncontrolled by
opioids and neurovascular compromise. Option A is an
expected finding. Option C related to compartment syndrome
cannot be
seen, and any visible edema is an expected finding related to
the injury. Option
D is an expected
finding.
The clinic nurse is providing post-operative teaching for a
client scheduled for a myringoplasty. Which client statements
indicate to the nurse that the teaching has been effective?
(Select all that apply.) A.
"I can wash my hair in the shower when I
get home." B.
"I will avoid forceful and deep coughing until my post-
op checkup." C.
"I must lay flat on my non-operative side for the first 12 hours
after surgery." D.
"My hearing may be less or muffled until the packing
comes out." E.
,"I need to only take the first two doses of antibiotics and save
the rest for another time." - ANSWER-B, C, D
Rationale:The client must keep the ear bandage clean and dry
until the packing is removed. Showering and hair washing is
discouraged. As with all prescriptions for antibiotics, the client
must take the full course of treatment. The remaining client
statements do indicate effective teaching.
The nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client who is
transferred from a long-term care facility to an in-patient
hospital unit. The client is unable to move independently while
in bed. The nurse observes reddened areas to the sacrum and
on the heals bilaterally. What is the next nursing action? A.
Document the size and shape of the
reddened areas. B.
Massage the reddened areas with a hospital-
approved lotion. C.
Call the nurse from the transferring facility to determine the
client's baseline. D.
Culture the wounds. - ANSWER-A
Rationale:The nurse must document any pressure wounds
upon admission to establish the client's baseline and for
insurance purposes. Insurance will not reimburse from
hospital-acquired pressure ulcers. Massaging is not
recommended as it may dislodge the existing tissue. A call is
not a good use of the nurse's time as the pressure ulcers exist
upon transfer, and the baseline is determined upon admission.
The health care provider will order cultures, if needed.
, A client with type 2 diabetes takes metformin daily. The client
is scheduled for major surgery requiring general anesthesia
the next day. The nurse anticipates which approach to manage
the client's diabetes best while the client is NPO during the
perioperative period? A.
NPO except for metformin and regular
snacks B.
NPO except for oral antidiabetic
agent C.
Novolin N insulin subcutaneously
twice daily D.
Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale - ANSWER-D
Rationale:Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood
glucose levels (sliding scale) is the best method to achieve
control of the client's blood glucose while the client is NPO and
coping with the major stress of surgery. Option A increases the
risk of vomiting and aspiration. Options B and C provide less
precise control of the blood glucose level.
A 43-year-old homeless, malnourished client with a history of
alcoholism is transferred to the ICU. The nurse palpates a
heart rate of 160 beats/min, and the client's blood pressure is
90/54 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which IV medication
should the nurse administer? A.
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B.
Magnesium
sulfate C.
MOST RECENT EXAM ACTUAL COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ / NEWEST EXAM
/ JUST RELEASED!!
A 77-year-old client is admitted to the hospital with confusion
and anorexia of several days' duration. Additional symptoms
reported are nausea and vomiting, and current complaints of a
headache. The client's pulse rate is 43 beats/min. The nurse is
most concerned about the client's history related to which
medication? A. Warfarin B. Ibuprofen C.
Nitroglyceri
n D.
Digoxin - ANSWER-D
Rationale:Older persons are particularly susceptible to the
buildup of cardiac glycosides, such as digoxin or digitoxin
(medications derived from digitalis), to a toxic level in their
systems. Toxicity can cause anorexia, nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea, headache, and fatigue. Options A, B, and C are
unlikely to result in the symptoms described.
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow.
Which assessment finding has the highest priority and
requires immediate intervention? A.
Ecchymosis over the right
elbow area B.
,Deep unrelenting pain in the
right arm C.
An edematous right
elbow D.
The presence of crepitus in the right elbow - ANSWER-B
Rationale:Compartment syndrome is a condition involving
increased pressure and constriction of the nerves and vessels
within an anatomic compartment, causing pain uncontrolled by
opioids and neurovascular compromise. Option A is an
expected finding. Option C related to compartment syndrome
cannot be
seen, and any visible edema is an expected finding related to
the injury. Option
D is an expected
finding.
The clinic nurse is providing post-operative teaching for a
client scheduled for a myringoplasty. Which client statements
indicate to the nurse that the teaching has been effective?
(Select all that apply.) A.
"I can wash my hair in the shower when I
get home." B.
"I will avoid forceful and deep coughing until my post-
op checkup." C.
"I must lay flat on my non-operative side for the first 12 hours
after surgery." D.
"My hearing may be less or muffled until the packing
comes out." E.
,"I need to only take the first two doses of antibiotics and save
the rest for another time." - ANSWER-B, C, D
Rationale:The client must keep the ear bandage clean and dry
until the packing is removed. Showering and hair washing is
discouraged. As with all prescriptions for antibiotics, the client
must take the full course of treatment. The remaining client
statements do indicate effective teaching.
The nurse is performing a skin assessment on a client who is
transferred from a long-term care facility to an in-patient
hospital unit. The client is unable to move independently while
in bed. The nurse observes reddened areas to the sacrum and
on the heals bilaterally. What is the next nursing action? A.
Document the size and shape of the
reddened areas. B.
Massage the reddened areas with a hospital-
approved lotion. C.
Call the nurse from the transferring facility to determine the
client's baseline. D.
Culture the wounds. - ANSWER-A
Rationale:The nurse must document any pressure wounds
upon admission to establish the client's baseline and for
insurance purposes. Insurance will not reimburse from
hospital-acquired pressure ulcers. Massaging is not
recommended as it may dislodge the existing tissue. A call is
not a good use of the nurse's time as the pressure ulcers exist
upon transfer, and the baseline is determined upon admission.
The health care provider will order cultures, if needed.
, A client with type 2 diabetes takes metformin daily. The client
is scheduled for major surgery requiring general anesthesia
the next day. The nurse anticipates which approach to manage
the client's diabetes best while the client is NPO during the
perioperative period? A.
NPO except for metformin and regular
snacks B.
NPO except for oral antidiabetic
agent C.
Novolin N insulin subcutaneously
twice daily D.
Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale - ANSWER-D
Rationale:Regular insulin dosing based on the client's blood
glucose levels (sliding scale) is the best method to achieve
control of the client's blood glucose while the client is NPO and
coping with the major stress of surgery. Option A increases the
risk of vomiting and aspiration. Options B and C provide less
precise control of the blood glucose level.
A 43-year-old homeless, malnourished client with a history of
alcoholism is transferred to the ICU. The nurse palpates a
heart rate of 160 beats/min, and the client's blood pressure is
90/54 mm Hg. Based on these findings, which IV medication
should the nurse administer? A.
Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B.
Magnesium
sulfate C.
