Adult Health II Exam 2
Adult Health II Exam 2
Adult Health II Exam 2 Questions and
Answers Top Rated A+ Latest Versions
2025
A client with chronic asthma is admitted to the PACU complaining of pain at a level of 8 on a 1 to
10 scale, with a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg, pulse of 88 beats/min, and respirations of 20
breaths/min. The PACU recovery prescription is "Morphine, 2 to 4 mg IV push, while in recovery
for pain level over 5." Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Give the medication as prescribed to decrease the client's pain.
B. Call the anesthesia provider for a different medication for pain.
C. Use nonpharmacologic techniques before giving the medication.
D. Reassess the pain level in 30 minutes and medicate if it remains elevated.
- Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- The nurse should call the provider for a different medication because morphine is a
histamine-releasing opioid and should be avoided when the client has asthma. Option A is unsafe
because it puts the client at risk for an asthma exacerbation. Even if the drug were safe for the
client, options C and D both disregard the prescription and the client's need for pain relief in the
immediate postoperative period.
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water seal drainage that was inserted 10 days
ago because of a ruptured bullae and pneumothorax. Which finding should the nurse report to
the health care provider before the chest tube is removed?
A. Tidaling of water in water seal chamber
B. Bilateral muffled breath sounds at bases
A+ TEST BANK 1
, Adult Health II Exam 2
C. Temperature of 101° F
D. Absence of chest tube drainage for 2 days
A+ TEST BANK 2
, Adult Health II Exam 2
- Correct Answer :Answer- A
Rationale- Tidaling (rising and falling of water with respirations) in the water seal chamber should
be reported to the health care provider before the chest tube is removed to rule out an
unresolved pneumothorax or persistent air leak, which is characteristic of a ruptured bullae
caused by abnormally wide changes in negative intrathoracic pressure. Option B may indicate
hypoventilation from chest tube discomfort and usually improves when the chest tube is
removed. Option C usually indicates an infection, which may not be related to the chest tube.
Option D is an expected finding.
A hospitalized client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous
pump infusion. He begins to cough and produces a moderate amount of white sputum. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds.
B. Turn off the continuous feeding pump.
C. Check placement of the nasogastric tube.
D. Measure the amount of residual feeding. - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- A productive cough may indicate that the feeding has been aspirated. The nurse
should first stop the feeding to prevent further aspiration. Options A, C, and D should all be
performed before restarting the tube feeding if no evidence of aspiration is present and the tube
is in place.
learn hepatitis b, a , c etc - Correct Answer :
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow. Which assessment finding has the
highest priority and requires immediate intervention?
A. Ecchymosis over the right elbow area
B. Deep unrelenting pain in the right arm
C. An edematous right elbow
A+ TEST BANK 3
, Adult Health II Exam 2
D. The presence of crepitus in the right elbow - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- Compartment syndrome is a condition involving increased pressure and constriction
of the nerves and vessels within an anatomic compartment, causing pain uncontrolled by opioids
and neurovascular compromise. Option A is an expected finding. Option C related to
compartment syndrome cannot be seen, and any visible edema is an expected finding related to
the injury. Option D is an expected finding.
A 43-year-old homeless, malnourished female client with a history of alcoholism is transferred to
the ICU. She is placed on telemetry, and the rhythm strip shown is obtained. The nurse palpates
a heart rate of 160 beats/min, and the client's blood pressure is 90/54 mm Hg. Based on these
findings, which IV medication should the nurse administer?
A. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
D. Procainamide (Pronestyl) - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- Because the client has chronic alcoholism, she is likely to have hypomagnesemia.
Option B is the recommended drug for torsades de pointes, which is a form of polymorphic
ventricular tachycardia (VT) usually associated with a prolonged QT interval that occurs with
hypomagnesemia. Options A and D increase the QT interval, which can cause the torsades to
worsen. Option C is the antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of drug-induced monomorphic
VT, not torsades.
What is the correct location for placement of the hands for manual chest compressions during
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on the adult client?
A. Just above the xiphoid process, on the upper third of the sternum
B. Below the xiphoid process, midway between the sternum and the umbilicus
A+ TEST BANK 4
Adult Health II Exam 2
Adult Health II Exam 2 Questions and
Answers Top Rated A+ Latest Versions
2025
A client with chronic asthma is admitted to the PACU complaining of pain at a level of 8 on a 1 to
10 scale, with a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg, pulse of 88 beats/min, and respirations of 20
breaths/min. The PACU recovery prescription is "Morphine, 2 to 4 mg IV push, while in recovery
for pain level over 5." Which intervention should the nurse implement?
A. Give the medication as prescribed to decrease the client's pain.
B. Call the anesthesia provider for a different medication for pain.
C. Use nonpharmacologic techniques before giving the medication.
D. Reassess the pain level in 30 minutes and medicate if it remains elevated.
- Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- The nurse should call the provider for a different medication because morphine is a
histamine-releasing opioid and should be avoided when the client has asthma. Option A is unsafe
because it puts the client at risk for an asthma exacerbation. Even if the drug were safe for the
client, options C and D both disregard the prescription and the client's need for pain relief in the
immediate postoperative period.
The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube to water seal drainage that was inserted 10 days
ago because of a ruptured bullae and pneumothorax. Which finding should the nurse report to
the health care provider before the chest tube is removed?
A. Tidaling of water in water seal chamber
B. Bilateral muffled breath sounds at bases
A+ TEST BANK 1
, Adult Health II Exam 2
C. Temperature of 101° F
D. Absence of chest tube drainage for 2 days
A+ TEST BANK 2
, Adult Health II Exam 2
- Correct Answer :Answer- A
Rationale- Tidaling (rising and falling of water with respirations) in the water seal chamber should
be reported to the health care provider before the chest tube is removed to rule out an
unresolved pneumothorax or persistent air leak, which is characteristic of a ruptured bullae
caused by abnormally wide changes in negative intrathoracic pressure. Option B may indicate
hypoventilation from chest tube discomfort and usually improves when the chest tube is
removed. Option C usually indicates an infection, which may not be related to the chest tube.
Option D is an expected finding.
A hospitalized client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous
pump infusion. He begins to cough and produces a moderate amount of white sputum. Which
action should the nurse take first?
A. Auscultate the client's breath sounds.
B. Turn off the continuous feeding pump.
C. Check placement of the nasogastric tube.
D. Measure the amount of residual feeding. - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- A productive cough may indicate that the feeding has been aspirated. The nurse
should first stop the feeding to prevent further aspiration. Options A, C, and D should all be
performed before restarting the tube feeding if no evidence of aspiration is present and the tube
is in place.
learn hepatitis b, a , c etc - Correct Answer :
The nurse is caring for a client with a fractured right elbow. Which assessment finding has the
highest priority and requires immediate intervention?
A. Ecchymosis over the right elbow area
B. Deep unrelenting pain in the right arm
C. An edematous right elbow
A+ TEST BANK 3
, Adult Health II Exam 2
D. The presence of crepitus in the right elbow - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- Compartment syndrome is a condition involving increased pressure and constriction
of the nerves and vessels within an anatomic compartment, causing pain uncontrolled by opioids
and neurovascular compromise. Option A is an expected finding. Option C related to
compartment syndrome cannot be seen, and any visible edema is an expected finding related to
the injury. Option D is an expected finding.
A 43-year-old homeless, malnourished female client with a history of alcoholism is transferred to
the ICU. She is placed on telemetry, and the rhythm strip shown is obtained. The nurse palpates
a heart rate of 160 beats/min, and the client's blood pressure is 90/54 mm Hg. Based on these
findings, which IV medication should the nurse administer?
A. Amiodarone (Cordarone)
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
D. Procainamide (Pronestyl) - Correct Answer :Answer- B
Rationale- Because the client has chronic alcoholism, she is likely to have hypomagnesemia.
Option B is the recommended drug for torsades de pointes, which is a form of polymorphic
ventricular tachycardia (VT) usually associated with a prolonged QT interval that occurs with
hypomagnesemia. Options A and D increase the QT interval, which can cause the torsades to
worsen. Option C is the antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of drug-induced monomorphic
VT, not torsades.
What is the correct location for placement of the hands for manual chest compressions during
cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on the adult client?
A. Just above the xiphoid process, on the upper third of the sternum
B. Below the xiphoid process, midway between the sternum and the umbilicus
A+ TEST BANK 4
