NUR 507 - EXAM
NUR 507 EXAM 3: LEIK PRACTICE
QUESTIONS EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
COMPLETE ALL 350 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
|ALREADY GRADED A+||ALREADY
GRADED A+
The nurse should complete which of the following assessments on a client who has received tissue
plasminogen activator or alteplase recombinant therapy?
a) Blood glucose level.
b) Arterial blood gas values.
c) Excessive bleeding every hour for the first 8 hours.
d) Neurologic signs frequently throughout the course of therapy.
d) Neurologic signs frequently throughout the course of therapy.
Explanation:
The nurse needs to assess neurologic status throughout the therapy. Altered sensorium or
neurologic changes may indicate intracranial bleeding for the client who has received tissue
plasminogen activator or alteplase. The nurse should carefully check for bleeding every 15 minutes
during the first hour of therapy, every 15 to 30 minutes during the next 9 hours, and at least every 4
hours during the duration of therapy. Bleeding may occur from sites of invasive procedures or from
body orifices. The blood glucose level does not need to be evaluated. Arterial blood gas values relate
to acid base status and oxygenation and are avoided due to the invasiveness of arterial puncture at
this time. (less)
Which of the following is the best nursing response to make when a client who is experiencing an
acute myocardial infarction (MI) asks why the nurse is administering intravenous morphine?
a) "Morphine increases your heart's ability to stretch and squeeze and decreases pain."
b) "Morphine decreases blood pressure and increases your heart's ability to stretch."
c) "Morphine decreases the heart's need for oxygen and also makes your heart not work as hard."
d) "Morphine is a medication that is commonly administered for pain control."
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NUR 507 - EXAM
c) "Morphine decreases the heart's need for oxygen and also makes your heart not work as hard."
Explanation:
When given to treat acute MI, morphine eliminates pain, reduces preload and afterload, reduces
vascular resistance, reduces cardiac workload, and reduces the oxygen demand of the heart.
Morphine does not increase myocardial contractility, raise blood pressure, or increase preload or
afterload
A client has chest pain rated at 8 on a 10-point visual analog scale. The 12-lead electrocardiogram
reveals ST elevation in the inferior leads and troponin levels are elevated. What should the nurse do
first?
a) Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.
b) Limit visitation by family and friends.
c) Provide client education on medications and diet.
d) Monitor daily weights and urine output.
a) Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.
Explanation:
Nursing management for a client with a myocardial infarction should focus on pain management and
decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. Fluid status should be closely monitored. Client education
should begin once the client is stable and amenable to teaching. Visitation should be based on client
comfort and maintaining a calm environment.
In presenting a workshop on parameters of cardiac function, which conditions should a nurse list as
those most likely to lead to a decrease in preload?
a) Myocardial infarction, fluid overload, and diuresis
b) Hemorrhage, sepsis, and anaphylaxis
c) Fluid overload, sepsis, and vasodilation
d) Third spacing, heart failure, and diuresis
b) Hemorrhage, sepsis, and anaphylaxis
Explanation:
Preload is the volume in the left ventricle at the end of diastole. It's also referred to as end-diastolic
volume. Preload is reduced by any condition that reduces circulating volume, such as hemorrhage,
sepsis, and anaphylaxis. Hemorrhage reduces circulating volume by loss of volume from the
intravascular space. Sepsis and anaphylaxis reduce circulating volume by increased capillary
permeability. Diuresis, vasodilation, and third spacing also reduce preload. Preload increases with
fluid overload and heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing sinus bradycardia with a pulse rate of 40
beats/minute. His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and he complains of dizziness. What is the nurse's
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NUR 507 - EXAM
priority action?
a) Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push as ordered.
b) Administer lidocaine 100 mg IV push as ordered.
c) Administer a 500 ml IV bolus of normal saline solution (0.9% NaCl).
d) Notify the attending physician.
a) Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push as ordered.
Explanation:
I.V. push atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. The attending physician should be
notified after the patient is stabilized. A normal saline bolus will treat the hypotension, but will not
address the underlying problem. Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular ectopy, ventricular
tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation.
A client is in the compensatory stage of shock. Which finding indicates the client is entering the
progressive stage of shock?
a) temperature of 99° F
b) blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
c) heart rate of 110 bpm
d) urinary output of 20 ml per hour
d) urinary output of 20 ml per hour
Explanation:
In the compensatory stage of shock, the client exhibits moderate tachycardia, but as the shock
continues to the progressive stage the client will have a decreased urinary output, hypotension, and
mental confusion as a result of failure to perfuse and ineffective compensatory mechanisms. The
body temperature initially may remain normal. These findings are indications that the body's
compensatory mechanisms are failing.
Before surgery to repair an aortic aneurysm, the client's pulse pressure begins to widen, suggesting
increased aortic valvular insufficiency. If the branches of the aortic arch are involved, the nurse
should assess the client for:
a) loss of consciousness.
b) headache.
c) anxiety.
d) disorientation.
A) loss of consciousness.
Explanation:
If the aortic arch is involved, there will be a decrease in the blood flow to the cerebrum. Therefore,
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NUR 507 - EXAM
loss of consciousness will be observed. A sudden loss of consciousness is a primary symptom of
rupture and no blood flow to the brain.
Anxiety is not a sign of aortic valvular insufficiency.
The end result of decreased cerebral blood flow is loss of consciousness, not headache or
disorientation.
A client is in hypovolemic shock. In which position should the nurse place the client?
a) semi-Fowler's.
b) supine
c) supine with the legs elevated 15 degrees
d) Trendelenburg's
C) supine with the legs elevated 15 degrees
Explanation:
A client in hypovolemic shock is best positioned supine in bed with the feet elevated 15 degrees to
bring peripheral blood into the central circulation.
Neither semi-Fowler's position nor the supine position by itself promotes venous return.
Semi-Fowler's position would not facilitate venous return.
Trendelenburg's position inhibits respiratory expansion and possibly causes increased intracranial
pressure.
.!
The nurse is caring for a client following a myocardial infarction and is aware that complications can
occur due to damage to the myocardium. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate
for this client? Select all that apply.
a) Continuous cardiac monitoring via telemetry
b) Ambulating length of hall in first 24 hours
c) Maintaining bed rest for 72 hours
d) Auscultating apical pulse every 2 hours
e) Electrocardiogram with any chest pain
E) Electrocardiogram with any chest pain
A) Continuous cardiac monitoring via telemetry
D) Auscultating apical pulse every 2 hours
A+ TEST BANK 4
NUR 507 EXAM 3: LEIK PRACTICE
QUESTIONS EXAM NEWEST 2025/2026
COMPLETE ALL 350 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
|ALREADY GRADED A+||ALREADY
GRADED A+
The nurse should complete which of the following assessments on a client who has received tissue
plasminogen activator or alteplase recombinant therapy?
a) Blood glucose level.
b) Arterial blood gas values.
c) Excessive bleeding every hour for the first 8 hours.
d) Neurologic signs frequently throughout the course of therapy.
d) Neurologic signs frequently throughout the course of therapy.
Explanation:
The nurse needs to assess neurologic status throughout the therapy. Altered sensorium or
neurologic changes may indicate intracranial bleeding for the client who has received tissue
plasminogen activator or alteplase. The nurse should carefully check for bleeding every 15 minutes
during the first hour of therapy, every 15 to 30 minutes during the next 9 hours, and at least every 4
hours during the duration of therapy. Bleeding may occur from sites of invasive procedures or from
body orifices. The blood glucose level does not need to be evaluated. Arterial blood gas values relate
to acid base status and oxygenation and are avoided due to the invasiveness of arterial puncture at
this time. (less)
Which of the following is the best nursing response to make when a client who is experiencing an
acute myocardial infarction (MI) asks why the nurse is administering intravenous morphine?
a) "Morphine increases your heart's ability to stretch and squeeze and decreases pain."
b) "Morphine decreases blood pressure and increases your heart's ability to stretch."
c) "Morphine decreases the heart's need for oxygen and also makes your heart not work as hard."
d) "Morphine is a medication that is commonly administered for pain control."
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NUR 507 - EXAM
c) "Morphine decreases the heart's need for oxygen and also makes your heart not work as hard."
Explanation:
When given to treat acute MI, morphine eliminates pain, reduces preload and afterload, reduces
vascular resistance, reduces cardiac workload, and reduces the oxygen demand of the heart.
Morphine does not increase myocardial contractility, raise blood pressure, or increase preload or
afterload
A client has chest pain rated at 8 on a 10-point visual analog scale. The 12-lead electrocardiogram
reveals ST elevation in the inferior leads and troponin levels are elevated. What should the nurse do
first?
a) Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.
b) Limit visitation by family and friends.
c) Provide client education on medications and diet.
d) Monitor daily weights and urine output.
a) Reduce pain and myocardial oxygen demand.
Explanation:
Nursing management for a client with a myocardial infarction should focus on pain management and
decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. Fluid status should be closely monitored. Client education
should begin once the client is stable and amenable to teaching. Visitation should be based on client
comfort and maintaining a calm environment.
In presenting a workshop on parameters of cardiac function, which conditions should a nurse list as
those most likely to lead to a decrease in preload?
a) Myocardial infarction, fluid overload, and diuresis
b) Hemorrhage, sepsis, and anaphylaxis
c) Fluid overload, sepsis, and vasodilation
d) Third spacing, heart failure, and diuresis
b) Hemorrhage, sepsis, and anaphylaxis
Explanation:
Preload is the volume in the left ventricle at the end of diastole. It's also referred to as end-diastolic
volume. Preload is reduced by any condition that reduces circulating volume, such as hemorrhage,
sepsis, and anaphylaxis. Hemorrhage reduces circulating volume by loss of volume from the
intravascular space. Sepsis and anaphylaxis reduce circulating volume by increased capillary
permeability. Diuresis, vasodilation, and third spacing also reduce preload. Preload increases with
fluid overload and heart failure.
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing sinus bradycardia with a pulse rate of 40
beats/minute. His blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and he complains of dizziness. What is the nurse's
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NUR 507 - EXAM
priority action?
a) Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push as ordered.
b) Administer lidocaine 100 mg IV push as ordered.
c) Administer a 500 ml IV bolus of normal saline solution (0.9% NaCl).
d) Notify the attending physician.
a) Administer atropine 0.5 mg IV push as ordered.
Explanation:
I.V. push atropine is used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. The attending physician should be
notified after the patient is stabilized. A normal saline bolus will treat the hypotension, but will not
address the underlying problem. Lidocaine is used to treat ventricular ectopy, ventricular
tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation.
A client is in the compensatory stage of shock. Which finding indicates the client is entering the
progressive stage of shock?
a) temperature of 99° F
b) blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
c) heart rate of 110 bpm
d) urinary output of 20 ml per hour
d) urinary output of 20 ml per hour
Explanation:
In the compensatory stage of shock, the client exhibits moderate tachycardia, but as the shock
continues to the progressive stage the client will have a decreased urinary output, hypotension, and
mental confusion as a result of failure to perfuse and ineffective compensatory mechanisms. The
body temperature initially may remain normal. These findings are indications that the body's
compensatory mechanisms are failing.
Before surgery to repair an aortic aneurysm, the client's pulse pressure begins to widen, suggesting
increased aortic valvular insufficiency. If the branches of the aortic arch are involved, the nurse
should assess the client for:
a) loss of consciousness.
b) headache.
c) anxiety.
d) disorientation.
A) loss of consciousness.
Explanation:
If the aortic arch is involved, there will be a decrease in the blood flow to the cerebrum. Therefore,
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NUR 507 - EXAM
loss of consciousness will be observed. A sudden loss of consciousness is a primary symptom of
rupture and no blood flow to the brain.
Anxiety is not a sign of aortic valvular insufficiency.
The end result of decreased cerebral blood flow is loss of consciousness, not headache or
disorientation.
A client is in hypovolemic shock. In which position should the nurse place the client?
a) semi-Fowler's.
b) supine
c) supine with the legs elevated 15 degrees
d) Trendelenburg's
C) supine with the legs elevated 15 degrees
Explanation:
A client in hypovolemic shock is best positioned supine in bed with the feet elevated 15 degrees to
bring peripheral blood into the central circulation.
Neither semi-Fowler's position nor the supine position by itself promotes venous return.
Semi-Fowler's position would not facilitate venous return.
Trendelenburg's position inhibits respiratory expansion and possibly causes increased intracranial
pressure.
.!
The nurse is caring for a client following a myocardial infarction and is aware that complications can
occur due to damage to the myocardium. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate
for this client? Select all that apply.
a) Continuous cardiac monitoring via telemetry
b) Ambulating length of hall in first 24 hours
c) Maintaining bed rest for 72 hours
d) Auscultating apical pulse every 2 hours
e) Electrocardiogram with any chest pain
E) Electrocardiogram with any chest pain
A) Continuous cardiac monitoring via telemetry
D) Auscultating apical pulse every 2 hours
A+ TEST BANK 4
