EXIT HESI - Comprehensive PN Exam A
Practice Exam Questions and Answers (Most
Recent Version 2025/2026, Complete Study
A nurse who has recently completed orientation is beginning work in the labor and delivery unit for the
first time. When making assignments, which client should the charge nurse assign to this new nurse? -
CORRECT ANSWERS A multiparous client who is dilated 5 cm and 50% effaced
A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has white lesions in the oral cavity that
resemble milk curds. Nystatin (Mycostatin) preparation is prescribed as a swish and swallow. Which
information is most important for the nurse to provide the client? - CORRECT ANSWERS Oral
hygiene should be performed before the medication.
A client who is admitted with emphysema is having difficulty breathing. In which position should the
nurse place the client? - CORRECT ANSWERS Sitting upright and forward with both arms
supported on an over the bed table
A client with chronic renal insufficiency (CRI) is taking 25 mg of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) PO and 40
mg of furosemide (Lasix) PO daily. Today, at a routine clinic visit, the client's serum potassium level is 4
mEq/L. What is the most likely cause of this client's potassium level? - CORRECT ANSWERS The
client's renal function has affected his potassium level.
A registered nurse (RN) delivers telehealth services to clients via electronic communication. Which
nursing action creates the greatest risk for professional liability and has the potential for a malpractice
lawsuit? - CORRECT ANSWERS Sending medical records to health care providers via the Internet
Which pathophysiologic response supports the contraindication for opioids, such as morphine, in clients
with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A.Sedation produced by opioids is a result of a prolonged half-life when the ICP is elevated.
B.Higher doses of opioids are required when cerebral blood flow is reduced by an elevated ICP.
C.Dysphoria from opioids contributes to altered levels of consciousness with an elevated ICP.
D.Opioids suppress respirations, which increases Pco2 and contributes to an elevated ICP. - CORRECT
ANSWERS D
The greatest risk associated with opioids such as morphine (D) is respiratory depression that causes an
increase in Pco2, which increases ICP and masks the early signs of intracranial bleeding in head injury.
(A, B, and C) do not support the risks associated with opioid use in a client with increased ICP.
The charge nurse of a medical surgical unit is alerted to an impending disaster requiring implementation
of the hospital's disaster plan. Specific facts about the nature of this disaster are not yet known. Which
instruction should the charge nurse give to the other staff members at this time?
A.Prepare to evacuate the unit, starting with the bedridden clients.
B.UAPs should report to the emergency center to handle transports.
C.The licensed staff should begin counting wheelchairs and IV poles on the unit.
, D.Continue with current assignments until more instructions are received. - CORRECT ANSWERS
D
When faced with an impending disaster, hospital personnel may be alerted but should continue with
current client care assignments until further instructions are received (D). Evacuation is typically a
response of last resort that begins with clients who are most able to ambulate (A). (B) is premature and
is likely to increase the chaos if incoming casualties are anticipated. (C) is poor utilization of personnel.
The nurse assesses a client while the UAP measures the client's vital signs. The client's vital signs change
suddenly, and the nurse determines that the client's condition is worsening. The nurse is unsure of the
client's resuscitative status and needs to check the client's medical record for any advanced directives.
Which action should the nurse implement?
A.Ask the UAP to check for the advanced directive while the nurse completes the assessment.
B.Assign the UAP to complete the assessment while the nurse checks for the advanced directive.
C.Check the medical record for the advanced directive and then complete the client assessment.
D.Call for the charge nurse to check the advanced directive while continuing to assess the client. -
CORRECT ANSWERS D
Because the client's condition is worsening, the nurse should remain with the client and continue the
assessment while calling for help from the charge nurse to determine the client's resuscitative status
(D). (A and B) are tasks that must be completed by a nurse and cannot be delegated to the UAP. (C) is
contraindicated.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery scheduled in 2 hours. A UAP is helping the nurse. Which task is
important for the nurse to perform, rather than the UAP?
A.Remove the client's nail polish and dentures.
B.Assist the client to the restroom to void.
C.Obtain the client's height and weight.
D.Offer the client emotional support. - CORRECT ANSWERS D
By using therapeutic techniques to offer support (D), the nurse can determine any client concerns that
need to be addressed. (A, B, and C) are all actions that can be performed by the UAP under the
supervision of the nurse.
Until the census on the obstetrics (OB) unit increases, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who
usually works in labor and delivery and the newborn nursery is assigned to work on the postoperative
unit. Which client would be best for the charge nurse to assign to this UAP?
A.An adolescent who was readmitted to the hospital because of a postoperative infection
B.A woman with a new colostomy who requires discharge teaching
C.A woman who had a hip replacement and may be transferred to the home care unit
D.A man who had a cholecystectomy and currently has a nasogastric tube set to intermittent suction -
CORRECT ANSWERS C
The charge nurse will be responsible for providing a report to the home care unit if the transfer occurs
(A). The client is infected and an employee who works on an OB unit should be assigned to clean cases in
case the employee is required to return to the OB unit (B). This requires the skills of a registered nurse
(RN) to do discharge teaching and provide emotional support (D). This may require skills beyond the
level of this UAP.
, A male client is admitted for observation after being hit on the head with a baseball bat. Six hours after
admission, the client attempts to crawl out of bed and asks the nurse why there are so many bugs in his
bed. His vital signs are stable, and the pulse oximeter reading is 98% on room air. Which intervention
should the nurse perform first?
A.Administer oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
B.Plan to check his vital signs again in 30 minutes.
C.Notify the health care provider of the change in mental status.
D.Ask the client why he thinks there are bugs in the bed. - CORRECT ANSWERS C
One of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in mental status (C). It is
important to act early and quickly when symptoms of increased ICP occur. Because his oxygen
saturation is normal, the administration of oxygen (A) is not the top priority. Vital signs should be
monitored frequently (B), but the client's confusion should be reported immediately. (D) is not a useful
intervention.
The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving bedside conscious sedation with midazolam
hydrochloride (Versed). In assessing the client, the nurse determines that the client has slurred speech
with diplopia. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?
A.Open the airway with a chin lift-head tilt maneuver.
B.Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading.
C.Administer flumazenil (Romazicon).
D.Continue to monitor the client. - CORRECT ANSWERS D
The desired level III in conscious sedation includes slurred speech, glazed eyes, and marked diplopia.
Because this is the desired outcome of the medication regimen, no action is needed but continuing to
monitor the client (D). The airway is open if the client is able to talk (A). There are no signs of
hypoglycemia (B). No reversal is necessary for the benzodiazepine (Versed) without signs of
oversedation, such as respiratory depression (C).
The nurse is assessing a client using the Snellen chart and determines that the client's visual acuity is the
same as in a previous examination, which was recorded as 20/100. When the client asks the meaning of
this, which information should the nurse provide?
A.This visual acuity result is five times worse that of a normal finding.
B.This line should be seen clearly when the client wears corrective lenses.
C.A client with normal vision can read at 100 feet what this client reads at 20 feet.
D.This client can see at 100 feet what a client with normal vision can see at 20 feet. - CORRECT
ANSWERS C
The interpretation of the client's visual acuity is compared to the Snellen scale of 20/20, which indicates
that the letter size on the Snellen chart is seen clearly and read by a client with normal vision at 20 feet.
A finding of 20/100 means that this client can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read
at 100 feet (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
A client with small cell carcinoma of the lung has also developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH). Which outcome finding is the priority for this client?
A.Reduced peripheral edema
B.Urinary output of at least 70 mL/hr
Practice Exam Questions and Answers (Most
Recent Version 2025/2026, Complete Study
A nurse who has recently completed orientation is beginning work in the labor and delivery unit for the
first time. When making assignments, which client should the charge nurse assign to this new nurse? -
CORRECT ANSWERS A multiparous client who is dilated 5 cm and 50% effaced
A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has white lesions in the oral cavity that
resemble milk curds. Nystatin (Mycostatin) preparation is prescribed as a swish and swallow. Which
information is most important for the nurse to provide the client? - CORRECT ANSWERS Oral
hygiene should be performed before the medication.
A client who is admitted with emphysema is having difficulty breathing. In which position should the
nurse place the client? - CORRECT ANSWERS Sitting upright and forward with both arms
supported on an over the bed table
A client with chronic renal insufficiency (CRI) is taking 25 mg of hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) PO and 40
mg of furosemide (Lasix) PO daily. Today, at a routine clinic visit, the client's serum potassium level is 4
mEq/L. What is the most likely cause of this client's potassium level? - CORRECT ANSWERS The
client's renal function has affected his potassium level.
A registered nurse (RN) delivers telehealth services to clients via electronic communication. Which
nursing action creates the greatest risk for professional liability and has the potential for a malpractice
lawsuit? - CORRECT ANSWERS Sending medical records to health care providers via the Internet
Which pathophysiologic response supports the contraindication for opioids, such as morphine, in clients
with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
A.Sedation produced by opioids is a result of a prolonged half-life when the ICP is elevated.
B.Higher doses of opioids are required when cerebral blood flow is reduced by an elevated ICP.
C.Dysphoria from opioids contributes to altered levels of consciousness with an elevated ICP.
D.Opioids suppress respirations, which increases Pco2 and contributes to an elevated ICP. - CORRECT
ANSWERS D
The greatest risk associated with opioids such as morphine (D) is respiratory depression that causes an
increase in Pco2, which increases ICP and masks the early signs of intracranial bleeding in head injury.
(A, B, and C) do not support the risks associated with opioid use in a client with increased ICP.
The charge nurse of a medical surgical unit is alerted to an impending disaster requiring implementation
of the hospital's disaster plan. Specific facts about the nature of this disaster are not yet known. Which
instruction should the charge nurse give to the other staff members at this time?
A.Prepare to evacuate the unit, starting with the bedridden clients.
B.UAPs should report to the emergency center to handle transports.
C.The licensed staff should begin counting wheelchairs and IV poles on the unit.
, D.Continue with current assignments until more instructions are received. - CORRECT ANSWERS
D
When faced with an impending disaster, hospital personnel may be alerted but should continue with
current client care assignments until further instructions are received (D). Evacuation is typically a
response of last resort that begins with clients who are most able to ambulate (A). (B) is premature and
is likely to increase the chaos if incoming casualties are anticipated. (C) is poor utilization of personnel.
The nurse assesses a client while the UAP measures the client's vital signs. The client's vital signs change
suddenly, and the nurse determines that the client's condition is worsening. The nurse is unsure of the
client's resuscitative status and needs to check the client's medical record for any advanced directives.
Which action should the nurse implement?
A.Ask the UAP to check for the advanced directive while the nurse completes the assessment.
B.Assign the UAP to complete the assessment while the nurse checks for the advanced directive.
C.Check the medical record for the advanced directive and then complete the client assessment.
D.Call for the charge nurse to check the advanced directive while continuing to assess the client. -
CORRECT ANSWERS D
Because the client's condition is worsening, the nurse should remain with the client and continue the
assessment while calling for help from the charge nurse to determine the client's resuscitative status
(D). (A and B) are tasks that must be completed by a nurse and cannot be delegated to the UAP. (C) is
contraindicated.
The nurse is preparing a client for surgery scheduled in 2 hours. A UAP is helping the nurse. Which task is
important for the nurse to perform, rather than the UAP?
A.Remove the client's nail polish and dentures.
B.Assist the client to the restroom to void.
C.Obtain the client's height and weight.
D.Offer the client emotional support. - CORRECT ANSWERS D
By using therapeutic techniques to offer support (D), the nurse can determine any client concerns that
need to be addressed. (A, B, and C) are all actions that can be performed by the UAP under the
supervision of the nurse.
Until the census on the obstetrics (OB) unit increases, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who
usually works in labor and delivery and the newborn nursery is assigned to work on the postoperative
unit. Which client would be best for the charge nurse to assign to this UAP?
A.An adolescent who was readmitted to the hospital because of a postoperative infection
B.A woman with a new colostomy who requires discharge teaching
C.A woman who had a hip replacement and may be transferred to the home care unit
D.A man who had a cholecystectomy and currently has a nasogastric tube set to intermittent suction -
CORRECT ANSWERS C
The charge nurse will be responsible for providing a report to the home care unit if the transfer occurs
(A). The client is infected and an employee who works on an OB unit should be assigned to clean cases in
case the employee is required to return to the OB unit (B). This requires the skills of a registered nurse
(RN) to do discharge teaching and provide emotional support (D). This may require skills beyond the
level of this UAP.
, A male client is admitted for observation after being hit on the head with a baseball bat. Six hours after
admission, the client attempts to crawl out of bed and asks the nurse why there are so many bugs in his
bed. His vital signs are stable, and the pulse oximeter reading is 98% on room air. Which intervention
should the nurse perform first?
A.Administer oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
B.Plan to check his vital signs again in 30 minutes.
C.Notify the health care provider of the change in mental status.
D.Ask the client why he thinks there are bugs in the bed. - CORRECT ANSWERS C
One of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is a change in mental status (C). It is
important to act early and quickly when symptoms of increased ICP occur. Because his oxygen
saturation is normal, the administration of oxygen (A) is not the top priority. Vital signs should be
monitored frequently (B), but the client's confusion should be reported immediately. (D) is not a useful
intervention.
The nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving bedside conscious sedation with midazolam
hydrochloride (Versed). In assessing the client, the nurse determines that the client has slurred speech
with diplopia. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?
A.Open the airway with a chin lift-head tilt maneuver.
B.Obtain a fingerstick glucose reading.
C.Administer flumazenil (Romazicon).
D.Continue to monitor the client. - CORRECT ANSWERS D
The desired level III in conscious sedation includes slurred speech, glazed eyes, and marked diplopia.
Because this is the desired outcome of the medication regimen, no action is needed but continuing to
monitor the client (D). The airway is open if the client is able to talk (A). There are no signs of
hypoglycemia (B). No reversal is necessary for the benzodiazepine (Versed) without signs of
oversedation, such as respiratory depression (C).
The nurse is assessing a client using the Snellen chart and determines that the client's visual acuity is the
same as in a previous examination, which was recorded as 20/100. When the client asks the meaning of
this, which information should the nurse provide?
A.This visual acuity result is five times worse that of a normal finding.
B.This line should be seen clearly when the client wears corrective lenses.
C.A client with normal vision can read at 100 feet what this client reads at 20 feet.
D.This client can see at 100 feet what a client with normal vision can see at 20 feet. - CORRECT
ANSWERS C
The interpretation of the client's visual acuity is compared to the Snellen scale of 20/20, which indicates
that the letter size on the Snellen chart is seen clearly and read by a client with normal vision at 20 feet.
A finding of 20/100 means that this client can read at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can read
at 100 feet (C). (A, B, and D) are inaccurate.
A client with small cell carcinoma of the lung has also developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH). Which outcome finding is the priority for this client?
A.Reduced peripheral edema
B.Urinary output of at least 70 mL/hr
