1
HESI PN Exit Exam V3 2025/2026 –
Fully Revised 75 Questions and
Expert Verified Answers | Actual
Version 3 Exam for Guaranteed Pass
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which assessment should the
nurse prioritize before administration?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Potassium level
D. Pain level
Correct Answer: C. Potassium level
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, which may lead to life-
threatening arrhythmias. Checking the potassium level is critical to ensure safe administration.
Question 2
A client reports pain at an IV site with redness and swelling. What should the nurse do first?
A. Apply a warm compress
B. Stop the IV infusion
C. Notify the provider
D. Administer an analgesic
Correct Answer: B. Stop the IV infusion
Rationale: Redness and swelling at the IV site suggest infiltration or phlebitis. Stopping the
infusion prevents further tissue damage, prioritizing client safety.
Question 3
A client’s lab results show a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer oxygen
B. Monitor for fatigue and tachycardia
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Restrict activity
, 2
Correct Answer: B. Monitor for fatigue and tachycardia
Rationale: A hemoglobin of 8 g/dL indicates anemia, which reduces oxygen-carrying capacity.
Monitoring for symptoms like fatigue and tachycardia assesses for complications.
Question 4
A client with diabetes is prescribed insulin lispro. When should this medication be administered?
A. 30 minutes after meals
B. Immediately before or with meals
C. 1 hour before meals
D. At bedtime
Correct Answer: B. Immediately before or with meals
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered immediately before or with
meals to control postprandial glucose spikes due to its rapid onset.
Question 5
A client with a urinary catheter reports discomfort. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check catheter patency
B. Administer a pain reliever
C. Notify the provider
D. Increase fluid intake
Correct Answer: A. Check catheter patency
Rationale: Discomfort may indicate a blocked catheter. Checking patency ensures proper urine
flow and prevents complications like bladder distension.
Question 6
A client’s sodium level is 130 mEq/L. Which symptom should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hyperactivity
B. Confusion
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B. Confusion
Rationale: Hyponatremia (sodium <135 mEq/L) can cause neurological symptoms like
confusion due to cerebral edema from low serum osmolality.
Question 7
A client is receiving heparin IV. Which lab value should the nurse monitor?
A. INR
B. aPTT
, 3
C. Platelet count
D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored by the activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) to ensure therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding.
Question 8
A client with COPD is prescribed albuterol via nebulizer. What is the priority assessment?
A. Heart rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: A. Heart rate
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-agonist, can cause tachycardia as a side effect. Monitoring heart rate
is critical to detect adverse effects.
Question 9
Which client should the nurse prioritize during a shift change?
A. Client with stable hypertension, BP 140/90 mmHg
B. Client reporting chest pain and diaphoresis
C. Client awaiting discharge instructions
D. Client with a scheduled dressing change
Correct Answer: B. Client reporting chest pain and diaphoresis
Rationale: Chest pain and diaphoresis suggest possible myocardial infarction, a life-threatening
condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 10
A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Which symptom indicates potential toxicity?
A. Weight gain
B. Visual disturbances
C. Hypertension
D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: B. Visual disturbances
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity, due to its narrow therapeutic index, may present with visual
disturbances (e.g., yellow halos), requiring immediate evaluation.
Question 11
HESI PN Exit Exam V3 2025/2026 –
Fully Revised 75 Questions and
Expert Verified Answers | Actual
Version 3 Exam for Guaranteed Pass
Question 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which assessment should the
nurse prioritize before administration?
A. Blood pressure
B. Respiratory rate
C. Potassium level
D. Pain level
Correct Answer: C. Potassium level
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, which may lead to life-
threatening arrhythmias. Checking the potassium level is critical to ensure safe administration.
Question 2
A client reports pain at an IV site with redness and swelling. What should the nurse do first?
A. Apply a warm compress
B. Stop the IV infusion
C. Notify the provider
D. Administer an analgesic
Correct Answer: B. Stop the IV infusion
Rationale: Redness and swelling at the IV site suggest infiltration or phlebitis. Stopping the
infusion prevents further tissue damage, prioritizing client safety.
Question 3
A client’s lab results show a hemoglobin of 8 g/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer oxygen
B. Monitor for fatigue and tachycardia
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Restrict activity
, 2
Correct Answer: B. Monitor for fatigue and tachycardia
Rationale: A hemoglobin of 8 g/dL indicates anemia, which reduces oxygen-carrying capacity.
Monitoring for symptoms like fatigue and tachycardia assesses for complications.
Question 4
A client with diabetes is prescribed insulin lispro. When should this medication be administered?
A. 30 minutes after meals
B. Immediately before or with meals
C. 1 hour before meals
D. At bedtime
Correct Answer: B. Immediately before or with meals
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered immediately before or with
meals to control postprandial glucose spikes due to its rapid onset.
Question 5
A client with a urinary catheter reports discomfort. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Check catheter patency
B. Administer a pain reliever
C. Notify the provider
D. Increase fluid intake
Correct Answer: A. Check catheter patency
Rationale: Discomfort may indicate a blocked catheter. Checking patency ensures proper urine
flow and prevents complications like bladder distension.
Question 6
A client’s sodium level is 130 mEq/L. Which symptom should the nurse monitor for?
A. Hyperactivity
B. Confusion
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: B. Confusion
Rationale: Hyponatremia (sodium <135 mEq/L) can cause neurological symptoms like
confusion due to cerebral edema from low serum osmolality.
Question 7
A client is receiving heparin IV. Which lab value should the nurse monitor?
A. INR
B. aPTT
, 3
C. Platelet count
D. Blood glucose
Correct Answer: B. aPTT
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored by the activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) to ensure therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding.
Question 8
A client with COPD is prescribed albuterol via nebulizer. What is the priority assessment?
A. Heart rate
B. Blood pressure
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Temperature
Correct Answer: A. Heart rate
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-agonist, can cause tachycardia as a side effect. Monitoring heart rate
is critical to detect adverse effects.
Question 9
Which client should the nurse prioritize during a shift change?
A. Client with stable hypertension, BP 140/90 mmHg
B. Client reporting chest pain and diaphoresis
C. Client awaiting discharge instructions
D. Client with a scheduled dressing change
Correct Answer: B. Client reporting chest pain and diaphoresis
Rationale: Chest pain and diaphoresis suggest possible myocardial infarction, a life-threatening
condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 10
A client is prescribed digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Which symptom indicates potential toxicity?
A. Weight gain
B. Visual disturbances
C. Hypertension
D. Polyuria
Correct Answer: B. Visual disturbances
Rationale: Digoxin toxicity, due to its narrow therapeutic index, may present with visual
disturbances (e.g., yellow halos), requiring immediate evaluation.
Question 11
