1
NSG 6005 Week 8 Quiz 2025 Actual –
Verified Quiz Questions with Graded
A Answers | South University
Question 1
Which medication is most appropriate for treating acute gouty arthritis?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Febuxostat
Rationale: Colchicine is the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks due to its anti-
inflammatory effects on neutrophils, reducing pain and swelling, per South University NSG 6005
Week 8 guidelines. Allopurinol and febuxostat are for long-term uric acid reduction, and
probenecid increases uric acid excretion.
Question 2
A patient on warfarin reports heavy menstrual bleeding. What should be monitored?
A. Platelet count
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR to assess bleeding risk, per
NSG 6005 Week 8. INR elevation may indicate excessive anticoagulation, requiring dose
adjustment.
Question 3
What is the primary mechanism of action of metformin in type 2 diabetes?
A. Stimulate insulin release
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
, 2
C. Increase glucagon secretion
D. Enhance glucose absorption
Rationale: Metformin reduces blood glucose by decreasing hepatic glucose production and
improving insulin sensitivity, per NSG 6005 Week 8 guidelines.
Question 4
Which antibiotic is associated with an increased risk of tendon rupture?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Azithromycin
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is linked to tendon rupture, particularly in older
adults, per NSG 6005 Week 8. Other antibiotics listed have lower risk.
Question 5
A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What electrolyte imbalance should be
monitored?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia by reducing
potassium excretion, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Question 6
Which medication is contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Furosemide
C. Metoprolol
D. Atorvastatin
Rationale: Furosemide, a sulfonamide diuretic, is contraindicated in patients with sulfa
allergies due to risk of hypersensitivity, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
, 3
Question 7
What is the primary therapeutic use of albuterol in asthma?
A. Anti-inflammatory action
B. Bronchodilation
C. Mucolytic effect
D. Antihistamine action
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, causes bronchodilation to relieve acute asthma
symptoms, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Question 8
A patient on digoxin presents with nausea and confusion. What is the likely cause?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Nausea and confusion are signs of digoxin toxicity, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Hypokalemia may exacerbate toxicity but is not the primary cause.
Question 9
Which drug class is first-line for managing generalized anxiety disorder?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C. Antipsychotics
D. Beta-blockers
Rationale: SSRIs are first-line for generalized anxiety disorder due to their efficacy and safety
profile, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Question 10
NSG 6005 Week 8 Quiz 2025 Actual –
Verified Quiz Questions with Graded
A Answers | South University
Question 1
Which medication is most appropriate for treating acute gouty arthritis?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Probenecid
D. Febuxostat
Rationale: Colchicine is the first-line treatment for acute gout attacks due to its anti-
inflammatory effects on neutrophils, reducing pain and swelling, per South University NSG 6005
Week 8 guidelines. Allopurinol and febuxostat are for long-term uric acid reduction, and
probenecid increases uric acid excretion.
Question 2
A patient on warfarin reports heavy menstrual bleeding. What should be monitored?
A. Platelet count
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Serum creatinine
Rationale: Warfarin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored via INR to assess bleeding risk, per
NSG 6005 Week 8. INR elevation may indicate excessive anticoagulation, requiring dose
adjustment.
Question 3
What is the primary mechanism of action of metformin in type 2 diabetes?
A. Stimulate insulin release
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
, 2
C. Increase glucagon secretion
D. Enhance glucose absorption
Rationale: Metformin reduces blood glucose by decreasing hepatic glucose production and
improving insulin sensitivity, per NSG 6005 Week 8 guidelines.
Question 4
Which antibiotic is associated with an increased risk of tendon rupture?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Azithromycin
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Levofloxacin, a fluoroquinolone, is linked to tendon rupture, particularly in older
adults, per NSG 6005 Week 8. Other antibiotics listed have lower risk.
Question 5
A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What electrolyte imbalance should be
monitored?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia by reducing
potassium excretion, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Question 6
Which medication is contraindicated in patients with a sulfa allergy?
A. Lisinopril
B. Furosemide
C. Metoprolol
D. Atorvastatin
Rationale: Furosemide, a sulfonamide diuretic, is contraindicated in patients with sulfa
allergies due to risk of hypersensitivity, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
, 3
Question 7
What is the primary therapeutic use of albuterol in asthma?
A. Anti-inflammatory action
B. Bronchodilation
C. Mucolytic effect
D. Antihistamine action
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, causes bronchodilation to relieve acute asthma
symptoms, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Question 8
A patient on digoxin presents with nausea and confusion. What is the likely cause?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Digoxin toxicity
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
Rationale: Nausea and confusion are signs of digoxin toxicity, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Hypokalemia may exacerbate toxicity but is not the primary cause.
Question 9
Which drug class is first-line for managing generalized anxiety disorder?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
C. Antipsychotics
D. Beta-blockers
Rationale: SSRIs are first-line for generalized anxiety disorder due to their efficacy and safety
profile, per NSG 6005 Week 8.
Question 10
