COPD EXAM QUESTIONS ALL VERSIONS 2025 | LATEST AND ACCURATE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS | VERIFIED FOR GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST UPDATE

1. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma? A. Smoking B. Air pollution C. Obesity D. Allergy Rationale: Allergy is the strongest predisposing factor for asthma, as allergens can trigger airway inflammation and hyperresponsiveness. 2. Which of the following would not be considered a primary symptom of COPD? A. Dyspnea B. Chronic cough C. Sputum production D. Weight gain Rationale: Weight gain is not a typical symptom of COPD. In fact, patients often experience weight loss due to increased work of breathing. 3. Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus? A. A mild asthma attack relieved with bronchodilators B. An allergic reaction involving wheezing and rash C. A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy D. An asthma episode controlled by oral antihistamines Rationale: Status asthmaticus is a life-threatening condition that does not respond to standard asthma treatments. 4. Which of the following drugs are correctly matched to their categories? Select all that apply. A. Albuterol – Bronchodilator B. Ciprofloxacin – Antibiotic C. Prednisone – Corticosteroid D. Acetaminophen – Decongestant Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator, Ciprofloxacin an antibiotic, and Prednisone a corticosteroid—all commonly used in COPD and asthma care. 5. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the care plan for a patient with cystic fibrosis? A. Limiting fluid intake B. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises C. Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered D. Administering diuretics routinely Rationale: Chest physiotherapy helps to clear thick mucus from the lungs, which is crucial for CF patients. 6. A client with COPD is admitted with an acute respiratory infection. Which respiratory finding is anticipated? A. Eupnea B. Clear lung sounds C. Bradypnea D. Increased respiratory rate with crackles and wheezing Rationale: An acute infection in a COPD patient often worsens airflow obstruction, leading to rapid breathing and abnormal lung sounds. 7. A likely nursing diagnosis for a client with a chronic respiratory disorder is: A. Impaired physical mobility B. Anxiety C. Deficient fluid volume D. Risk for injury Rationale: Clients often experience anxiety due to dyspnea and fear of suffocation. 8. What discharge instruction should the nurse provide to a client with COPD and cor pulmonale? A. Avoid exercise B. Take daily vitamins C. Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day D. Decrease water intake Rationale: Sudden weight gain can indicate fluid retention related to right-sided heart failure. 9. What indicates a therapeutic response to albuterol (Proventil) in a client with emphysema? A. Heart rate of 120 bpm B. No change in breathing C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute D. Crackles throughout lungs Rationale: A normalizing respiratory rate suggests improved airway patency. 10. What teaching point is most important for a client with asthma? A. Avoid exercise B. Increase fluid intake C. Use inhalers only when symptomatic D. Take ordered medications as scheduled Rationale: Consistent medication use helps prevent asthma exacerbations. 11. What type of diet is appropriate for a client with COPD? A. Low-protein B. Low-calorie C. Low-fat D. High-protein Rationale: A high-protein diet helps maintain muscle strength for effective breathing. 12. Which statement best describes emphysema? A. Inflammation of the bronchi B. A disease of the airways characterized by destruction of the walls of overdistended alveoli C. An infectious condition of the lungs D. Excess mucus production Rationale: Emphysema involves alveolar damage and decreased gas exchange. 13. The classification of grade I COPD is defined as: A. Severe COPD B. Very severe COPD C. Mild COPD D. Moderate COPD Rationale: Grade I represents the earliest, mildest form of COPD. 14. What is the nurse’s first action for a COPD client in respiratory distress in the ED? A. Administer albuterol B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min C. Start IV antibiotics D. Elevate the foot of the bed Rationale: Supplemental oxygen is a priority for correcting hypoxemia. 15. What should the nurse assess when a client is receiving methylprednisolone (SoluMedrol)? A. Urine output B. Fasting blood glucose levels C. Appetite D. Weight gain Rationale: Corticosteroids can elevate blood glucose levels. 16. Which three mechanisms do bronchodilators use to relieve bronchospasm? (Select 3) Alter smooth muscle tone Reduce airway obstruction Increase oxygen distribution Rationale: Bronchodilators improve airflow through all three mechanisms listed. 17. Histamine involved in asthma inflammation is secreted by: A. Basophils B. Neutrophils C. Mast cells D. Lymphocytes Rationale: Mast cells release histamine, a major inflammatory mediator in asthma. 18. What complication of bronchiectasis involves alveolar collapse? A. Pneumonia B. Pulmonary embolism C. Atelectasis D. Emphysema Rationale: Retained secretions can cause alveolar collapse, leading to atelectasis. 19. A short-acting beta2 agonist inhaler most likely prescribed is: A. Salmeterol B. Albuterol C. Tiotropium D. Montelukast Rationale: Albuterol is a commonly used short-acting bronchodilator. 20. According to new definitions, which condition remains under COPD classification? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Emphysema C. Asthma D. Bronchiectasis Rationale: The updated definition of COPD primarily includes emphysema. 21. What are the three most common symptoms of asthma? (Select 3) A. Dyspnea B. Cough C. Wheezing D. Chest pain Rationale: The classic triad of asthma symptoms includes dyspnea, cough, and wheezing due to airway inflammation and constriction. 22. Which of the following is a leading cause of COPD exacerbation? A. Emphysema B. Bronchitis C. Pneumothorax D. Asthma Rationale: Acute bronchitis or infections often trigger COPD exacerbations. 23. Which exposure accounts for most cases of COPD? A. Chemical fumes B. Exposure to tobacco smoke C. Air pollution D. Secondhand smoke Rationale: Long-term tobacco smoking is the leading cause of COPD worldwide. 24. During an asthma attack, which inhalant provides quick relief? A. Fluticasone B. Cromolyn sodium C. Proventil (Albuterol) D. Salmeterol Rationale: Proventil (Albuterol) is a short-acting beta2 agonist for rapid symptom relief. 25. Which drug is a second-line treatment for smoking cessation? A. Bupropion B. Clonidine C. Nicotine patch D. Varenicline Rationale: Clonidine is a second-line agent used when first-line therapies are ineffective or contraindicated. 26. Which statement from a client using a metered-dose inhaler requires further teaching? A. “I shake the inhaler before using it.” B. “I hold my breath after inhaling the medication.” C. “I do not need to rinse my mouth with this type of inhaler.” D. “I use a spacer when necessary.” Rationale: Clients should rinse their mouths after using corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral candidiasis. 27. What is the primary focus of nursing care for a client with bronchiectasis? A. Limiting physical activity B. Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions C. Administering antipyretics D. Monitoring blood glucose Rationale: The main focus is clearing retained mucus to prevent infections and improve gas exchange. 28. What acid-base imbalance is associated with COPD due to CO₂ retention? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. Respiratory alkalosis C. Respiratory acidosis D. Metabolic acidosis Rationale: CO₂ retention from hypoventilation in COPD leads to respiratory acidosis. 29. A 30-year-old with cystic fibrosis should have which intervention in their care plan? A. Avoidance of physical therapy B. Bedrest C. Performing chest physiotherapy as ordered D. Diuretic therapy Rationale: Chest physiotherapy helps mobilize mucus and improve respiratory function in CF. 30. What symptoms would a nurse expect in a patient with chronic bronchitis? A. Dry cough B. Sputum and a productive cough C. Chest pain only D. Decreased respiratory rate Rationale: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by persistent productive cough with sputum. 31. What is a known complication of bronchiectasis due to secretions and airway collapse? A. Pulmonary edema B. Bronchospasm C. Atelectasis D. Pleural effusion Rationale: Retained secretions can obstruct airways and lead to atelectasis (alveolar collapse).