CVRN Review Course Practice Questions with correct
answers
Which of the following valves are open during ventricular systole?
A) Mitral and tricuspid
B) Aortic and pulmonic
C) Mitral and aortic
D) Aortic and tricuspid
ACCN textbook Correct Answer.-B) Aortic and pulmonic
Which lobe of the right lung cannot be assessed from the anterior chest
wall?
A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Right middle
ACCN textbook Correct Answer.-B) Right lower
Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse
pressure should be 40 mmHg.
A) True
B) False Correct Answer.-A) True
Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk.
,A) True
B) False Correct Answer.-A) True
Regarding pitting edema in the extremities, 2+ edema indicates there is:
A) a 6 mm deep indentation and it takes >1 minute to disappear.
B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
C) No edema present
D) a 2 mm mild or slight indentation and that rapidly disappears
E) an 8 mm very deep indentation and it takes 5-8 minutes to disappear
Correct Answer.-B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15
seconds to disappear
Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm.
A) 20-40 bpm
B) 50-100 bpm
C) 100-160 bpm
D) 60-80 bpm Correct Answer.-A) 20-40 bpm
The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT
interval is the development of:
A) atrial fibrillation
B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
C) Junctional tachycardia
,D) Bradycardia Correct Answer.-B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular
tachycardia)
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type II AV
block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of
beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR intervals Correct Answer.-B) fixed and normal
PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type I AV
block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of
beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR interval Correct Answer.-A) progressive
prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
About the management of documented ACS, the recommendations are:
A) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
B) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 30 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 60 min.
, C) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 40 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 20 min.
D) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 20 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 30 min. Correct Answer.-A) therapy should be
door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to fibrinolysis
goal of 30 min.
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial
ischemia or injury is present in the anterior wall?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) Correct Answer.-A) left anterior
descending (LAD)
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial
ischemia or injury is present in the anterior and lateral walls?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) Correct Answer.-B) circumflex (Cx)
When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards
tell us that there is upwards of a 40% association of a right ventricular
infarction necessitating that we record:
A) a standard 12-lead ECG
answers
Which of the following valves are open during ventricular systole?
A) Mitral and tricuspid
B) Aortic and pulmonic
C) Mitral and aortic
D) Aortic and tricuspid
ACCN textbook Correct Answer.-B) Aortic and pulmonic
Which lobe of the right lung cannot be assessed from the anterior chest
wall?
A) Right upper
B) Right lower
C) Right middle
ACCN textbook Correct Answer.-B) Right lower
Regarding pulse pressure, we know that the normal resting pulse
pressure should be 40 mmHg.
A) True
B) False Correct Answer.-A) True
Widened pulse pressure is an indicator of increased cardiovascular risk.
,A) True
B) False Correct Answer.-A) True
Regarding pitting edema in the extremities, 2+ edema indicates there is:
A) a 6 mm deep indentation and it takes >1 minute to disappear.
B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15 seconds to disappear
C) No edema present
D) a 2 mm mild or slight indentation and that rapidly disappears
E) an 8 mm very deep indentation and it takes 5-8 minutes to disappear
Correct Answer.-B) a 4 mm moderate indentation and it takes 10-15
seconds to disappear
Identify the average rate of an escaping ventricular rhythm.
A) 20-40 bpm
B) 50-100 bpm
C) 100-160 bpm
D) 60-80 bpm Correct Answer.-A) 20-40 bpm
The most dangerous complication associated with a prolonged QT
interval is the development of:
A) atrial fibrillation
B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular tachycardia)
C) Junctional tachycardia
,D) Bradycardia Correct Answer.-B) Torsade de pointes (ventricular
tachycardia)
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type II AV
block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of
beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR intervals Correct Answer.-B) fixed and normal
PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of beats
Identify the electrocardiographic criteria for second degree type I AV
block:
A) progressive prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
B) fixed and normal PR intervals, a wide QRS, and random dropping of
beats
C) complete AV dissociation from complete heart block
D) abnormally short PR interval Correct Answer.-A) progressive
prolongation of the PR interval, before dropped beats
About the management of documented ACS, the recommendations are:
A) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 30 min.
B) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 30 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 60 min.
, C) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 40 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 20 min.
D) therapy should be door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 20 mins, or
door to fibrinolysis goal of 30 min. Correct Answer.-A) therapy should be
door-to-balloon inflation (PCI) goal of 90 mins, or door to fibrinolysis
goal of 30 min.
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial
ischemia or injury is present in the anterior wall?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) Correct Answer.-A) left anterior
descending (LAD)
Which of the following coronary arteries are involved when myocardial
ischemia or injury is present in the anterior and lateral walls?
A) left anterior descending (LAD)
B) circumflex (Cx)
C) obtuse marginal (OM)
D) right coronary artery (RCA) Correct Answer.-B) circumflex (Cx)
When there is an inferior infarction, evidence based practice standards
tell us that there is upwards of a 40% association of a right ventricular
infarction necessitating that we record:
A) a standard 12-lead ECG
