ATI Rectum and Genitourinary Post Test Questions and
Answers / Verified Answers
A client with bladder cancer undergoes surgical removal of the bladder with
construction of an ileal conduit. What assessments by the nurse indicate that the
client is developing complications? Select all that apply.
1. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hour
2. Dusky appearance of the stoma
3. Stoma protrusion from the skin
4. Mucus shreds in the urine collection bag
5. Edema of the stoma during the first 24 hours after surgery
6. Sharp abdominal pain with rigidity - ANSWER2, 3, 6. A dusky appearance of the
stoma indicates decreased blood supply; a healthy stoma should appear beefy-red.
Protrusion indicates prolapse of the stoma, and sharp abdominal pain with rigidity
indicates peritonitis. A urine output greater than 30 ml/hour is a sign of adequate
renal perfusion and is a normal finding. Because mucous membranes are used to
create the conduit, mucus in the urine is expected. Stomal edema is a normal finding
during the first 24 hours after surgery.
A client with fever and urinary urgency is asked to provide a urine specimen for
culture and sensitivity analysis. The nurse should instruct the client to collect the
specimen from the:
1. first stream of urine from the bladder.
2. middle stream of urine from the bladder.
3. final stream of urine from the bladder.
4. full volume of urine from the bladder. - ANSWER2. The midstream specimen is
recommended because it's less likely to be contaminated with microorganisms from
the external genitalia than other specimens. It isn't necessary to collect a full volume
of urine for a urine culture and sensitivity.
A client is diagnosed with cystitis. The nurse recommends the client drink cranberry
juice. What assessment parameter should the nurse consider to determine if this
recommendation has been effective?
1. Urine specific gravity
2. White blood cell (WBC) count
3. pH
4. Protein - ANSWER3. Because cranberry juice is an acid-ash food that lowers the
urine pH, monitoring urine pH would be most useful in evaluating the effectiveness
of the intervention. Urine specific gravity, WBC count, and protein level won't
pinpoint the effectiveness of acid-ash food.
A client with dysuria is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). The nurse should
teach the client to expect urine to be:
1. greater in volume.
2. orange in color.
3. pungent in odor.
,4. concentrated in consistency. - ANSWER2. Phenazopyridine causes the urine to
have an orange color. Phenazopyridine doesn't cause higher urine volume, a
pungent urine odor, or concentrated urine.
The nurse is instructing a client with oxalate renal calculi. Which foods should the
nurse urge the client to eliminate from his diet?
1. Citrus fruits, molasses, and dried apricots
2. Milk, cheese, and ice cream
3. Sardines, liver, and kidney
4. Spinach, rhubarb, and asparagus - ANSWER4. To reduce the formation of oxalate
calculi, urge the client to avoid foods high in oxalate, such as spinach, rhubarb, and
asparagus. Other oxalate-rich foods to avoid include tomatoes, beets, chocolate,
cocoa, Ovaltine, nuts, celery, and parsley. Citrus fruits, molasses, dried apricots, milk,
cheese, ice cream, sardines, and organ meats don't produce oxalate and need not be
omitted from the client's diet.
A nurse is instructing the client about recommended daily fluid consumption. The
nurse should tell the client to drink approximately:
1. 4 cups per day.
2. 8 cups per day.
3. 12 cups per day.
4 16 cups per day. - ANSWER3. A client with renal calculi should
drink 3 L of fluid per day. This amount is
equivalent to 12 cups.
A client with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should the
nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
1. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel.
2. Take frequent baths.
3. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin.
4. Keep fingernails short and clean. - ANSWER4. Calcium-phosphate deposits in the
skin may cause pruritus. Scratching leads to excoriation and breaks in the skin that
increase the client's risk of infection. The nurse should tell the client to keep his
fingernails short and clean to reduce the risk of infection. Vigorous rubbing with a
towel can cause skin irritation, leading to further itching or breaks in the skin.
Frequent bathing can dry the skin, which contributes to itching. Emollients without
alcohol should be used to soothe the skin and help it retain moisture.
A client in acute renal failure becomes severely anemic and the physician prescribes
two units of packed red blood cells (RBCs). The nurse should plan to administer each
unit:
1. as quickly as the client can tolerate the infusions.
2. over 30 minutes to an hour.
3. between 1 and 4 hours.
4. up to 4 hours but no longer. - ANSWER3. It's standard practice to infuse a unit of
packed RBCs between 1 to 4 hours.
, A nurse is teaching a client with chronic renal failure about foods to avoid. It would
be most accurate for the nurse to teach the client to avoid:
1. yogurt and milk.
2. whole grain breads.
3. fresh fruits and vegetables.
4. beef and pork. - ANSWER4. Proteins are typically restricted in clients with chronic
renal failure because of their metabolites. The diet should be high in both calories
and carbohydrates.
A client with bladder cancer receives local radiation therapy and experiences a dry
skin reaction. When teaching the client about skin care, the nurse should instruct the
client to avoid:
1. lubrication.
2. cleansers.
3. cold packs.
4. cotton garments. - ANSWER3. Cold packs over the area of a dry reaction to
radiation therapy are contraindicated because they reduce capillary circulation to
the site and hamper healing. Lubrication, cleansers, and cotton garments aren't
unconditionally contraindicated.
A nurse is conducting a prenatal teaching class and is reviewing the functions of the
female reproductive system. A client in the class asks the nurse about the function of
the fallopian tubes. The nurse tells the client that:
1. Estrogen and progesterone are secreted from the fallopian tubes.
2. The fallopian tubes are the passageway for the fetus.
3. The fetus develops in the fallopian tubes.
4. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tubes. - ANSWER4. Each fallopian tube is
hollow, muscular tube that transports a mature oocyte for final maturation and
fertilization. Fertilization typically occurs near the boundary between the ampulla
and isthmus of the tube. Estrogen is a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles,
corpus luteum, adrenal cortex, and placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a
hormone secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary, adrenal glands, and placenta
during pregnancy. The vagina is the passageway of the fetus, and the fetus develops
in the uterus.
A nursing instructor is reviewing the menstrual cycle with a nursing student who will
be conducting a prenatal teaching session. The instructor asks the student to
describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH).
The student accurately responds by stating that:
1. FSH & LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
2. FSH & LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary.
3. FSH & LH are secreted by the adrenal glands.
4. FSH & LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. - ANSWER1. Follicle-
stimulating hormone and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone
from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate
follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and the
production of progesterone. Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect.
Answers / Verified Answers
A client with bladder cancer undergoes surgical removal of the bladder with
construction of an ileal conduit. What assessments by the nurse indicate that the
client is developing complications? Select all that apply.
1. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hour
2. Dusky appearance of the stoma
3. Stoma protrusion from the skin
4. Mucus shreds in the urine collection bag
5. Edema of the stoma during the first 24 hours after surgery
6. Sharp abdominal pain with rigidity - ANSWER2, 3, 6. A dusky appearance of the
stoma indicates decreased blood supply; a healthy stoma should appear beefy-red.
Protrusion indicates prolapse of the stoma, and sharp abdominal pain with rigidity
indicates peritonitis. A urine output greater than 30 ml/hour is a sign of adequate
renal perfusion and is a normal finding. Because mucous membranes are used to
create the conduit, mucus in the urine is expected. Stomal edema is a normal finding
during the first 24 hours after surgery.
A client with fever and urinary urgency is asked to provide a urine specimen for
culture and sensitivity analysis. The nurse should instruct the client to collect the
specimen from the:
1. first stream of urine from the bladder.
2. middle stream of urine from the bladder.
3. final stream of urine from the bladder.
4. full volume of urine from the bladder. - ANSWER2. The midstream specimen is
recommended because it's less likely to be contaminated with microorganisms from
the external genitalia than other specimens. It isn't necessary to collect a full volume
of urine for a urine culture and sensitivity.
A client is diagnosed with cystitis. The nurse recommends the client drink cranberry
juice. What assessment parameter should the nurse consider to determine if this
recommendation has been effective?
1. Urine specific gravity
2. White blood cell (WBC) count
3. pH
4. Protein - ANSWER3. Because cranberry juice is an acid-ash food that lowers the
urine pH, monitoring urine pH would be most useful in evaluating the effectiveness
of the intervention. Urine specific gravity, WBC count, and protein level won't
pinpoint the effectiveness of acid-ash food.
A client with dysuria is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium). The nurse should
teach the client to expect urine to be:
1. greater in volume.
2. orange in color.
3. pungent in odor.
,4. concentrated in consistency. - ANSWER2. Phenazopyridine causes the urine to
have an orange color. Phenazopyridine doesn't cause higher urine volume, a
pungent urine odor, or concentrated urine.
The nurse is instructing a client with oxalate renal calculi. Which foods should the
nurse urge the client to eliminate from his diet?
1. Citrus fruits, molasses, and dried apricots
2. Milk, cheese, and ice cream
3. Sardines, liver, and kidney
4. Spinach, rhubarb, and asparagus - ANSWER4. To reduce the formation of oxalate
calculi, urge the client to avoid foods high in oxalate, such as spinach, rhubarb, and
asparagus. Other oxalate-rich foods to avoid include tomatoes, beets, chocolate,
cocoa, Ovaltine, nuts, celery, and parsley. Citrus fruits, molasses, dried apricots, milk,
cheese, ice cream, sardines, and organ meats don't produce oxalate and need not be
omitted from the client's diet.
A nurse is instructing the client about recommended daily fluid consumption. The
nurse should tell the client to drink approximately:
1. 4 cups per day.
2. 8 cups per day.
3. 12 cups per day.
4 16 cups per day. - ANSWER3. A client with renal calculi should
drink 3 L of fluid per day. This amount is
equivalent to 12 cups.
A client with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should the
nurse include in this client's teaching plan?
1. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel.
2. Take frequent baths.
3. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin.
4. Keep fingernails short and clean. - ANSWER4. Calcium-phosphate deposits in the
skin may cause pruritus. Scratching leads to excoriation and breaks in the skin that
increase the client's risk of infection. The nurse should tell the client to keep his
fingernails short and clean to reduce the risk of infection. Vigorous rubbing with a
towel can cause skin irritation, leading to further itching or breaks in the skin.
Frequent bathing can dry the skin, which contributes to itching. Emollients without
alcohol should be used to soothe the skin and help it retain moisture.
A client in acute renal failure becomes severely anemic and the physician prescribes
two units of packed red blood cells (RBCs). The nurse should plan to administer each
unit:
1. as quickly as the client can tolerate the infusions.
2. over 30 minutes to an hour.
3. between 1 and 4 hours.
4. up to 4 hours but no longer. - ANSWER3. It's standard practice to infuse a unit of
packed RBCs between 1 to 4 hours.
, A nurse is teaching a client with chronic renal failure about foods to avoid. It would
be most accurate for the nurse to teach the client to avoid:
1. yogurt and milk.
2. whole grain breads.
3. fresh fruits and vegetables.
4. beef and pork. - ANSWER4. Proteins are typically restricted in clients with chronic
renal failure because of their metabolites. The diet should be high in both calories
and carbohydrates.
A client with bladder cancer receives local radiation therapy and experiences a dry
skin reaction. When teaching the client about skin care, the nurse should instruct the
client to avoid:
1. lubrication.
2. cleansers.
3. cold packs.
4. cotton garments. - ANSWER3. Cold packs over the area of a dry reaction to
radiation therapy are contraindicated because they reduce capillary circulation to
the site and hamper healing. Lubrication, cleansers, and cotton garments aren't
unconditionally contraindicated.
A nurse is conducting a prenatal teaching class and is reviewing the functions of the
female reproductive system. A client in the class asks the nurse about the function of
the fallopian tubes. The nurse tells the client that:
1. Estrogen and progesterone are secreted from the fallopian tubes.
2. The fallopian tubes are the passageway for the fetus.
3. The fetus develops in the fallopian tubes.
4. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tubes. - ANSWER4. Each fallopian tube is
hollow, muscular tube that transports a mature oocyte for final maturation and
fertilization. Fertilization typically occurs near the boundary between the ampulla
and isthmus of the tube. Estrogen is a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles,
corpus luteum, adrenal cortex, and placenta during pregnancy. Progesterone is a
hormone secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary, adrenal glands, and placenta
during pregnancy. The vagina is the passageway of the fetus, and the fetus develops
in the uterus.
A nursing instructor is reviewing the menstrual cycle with a nursing student who will
be conducting a prenatal teaching session. The instructor asks the student to
describe the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH).
The student accurately responds by stating that:
1. FSH & LH are released from the anterior pituitary gland.
2. FSH & LH are secreted by the corpus luteum of the ovary.
3. FSH & LH are secreted by the adrenal glands.
4. FSH & LH stimulate the formation of milk during pregnancy. - ANSWER1. Follicle-
stimulating hormone and LH, when stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone
from the hypothalamus, are released from the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate
follicular growth and development, growth of the graafian follicle, and the
production of progesterone. Options 2, 3 and 4 are incorrect.
