ACLS quiz with complete soutions.

ACLS quiz with complete soutions. Which are the elements of a system of care? - correct answer. Structure, processes, system, patient outcome What element of a system of care is represented by properly functioning resuscitation equipment? - correct answer. Structure Among others, which factor has been associated with improved survival in patients with cardiac arrest? - correct answer. Immediate high- quality CPR What is the first link in the out-of-hospital cardiac arrest (OHCA) chain of survival? - correct answer. Activation of emergency response What are signs of clinical deterioration that would prompt the activation of a rapid response system? - correct answer. Systemic hypertension, unexplained agitation, seizure What is the primary purpose of a rapid response team (RRT) or medical emergency team (MET)? - correct answer. To improve patient outcomes by identifying and treating early clinical deterioration What happens when teams rapidly assess and intervene when patients have abnormal vital signs? - correct answer. The number of in-hospital cardiac- arrest decreases In addition to decreased IHCA, what are some other benefits of implementing a rapid response system? - correct answer. Decrease ICU length of stay, decreased in total hospital length of stay Which component of effective high-performance teams is represented by the use of real-time feedback devices? - correct answer. Quality What is the main advantage of effective teamwork? - correct answer. Division of tasks Which is the best example of a role of the team leader? - correct answer. Models excellent team behavior Which is the best example of a role of a team member? - correct answer. Prepared to fulfill their role responsibilities What is primary purpose of the CPR coach on a resuscitation team? - correct answer. Increasing CPR quality Which member of the high-performance team has the responsibility for assigning roles (positions)? - correct answer. Team leader Which high-performance team member is part of the resuscitation triangle? - correct answer. Monitor/ defibrillator/ CPR coach Which is an example of knowledge sharing by a team leader? - correct answer. Asking for suggestions about interventions Which is an example of summarizing and reevaluating? - correct answer. Increasing monitoring of the patient's condition deteriorates Which is a step of closed-loop communication? - correct answer. Confirming task completion before assigning another task Which are examples of mutual respect? - correct answer. • Acknowledging correctly completed tasks in a positive way • Ensuring that only 1 person talks at a time What are the components of high-quality CPR? - correct answer. • Compression depth of at least 2 inches (5cm) • Complete chest recoil after each compression • Interruptions limited £ 10 seconds • Switching compressions every 2 minutes • Avoiding excessive ventilation Which of the following defines chest compression fraction (CCF)? - correct answer. CCF= actual chest compression time/ Total code time During CPR, chest compression fraction (CCF) should be at least --- and ideally greater than 80%. - correct answer. 60% How do interruptions in chest compressions negatively impact survival after cardiac arrest? - correct answer. Decrease coronary perfusion pressure Coronary perfusion pressure (CPP) equals aortic ---- pressure minus right atrial diastolic pressure. - correct answer. diastolic What is the only intervention that can restore on organize rhythm in patients with ventricular fibrillation (VF)? - correct answer. Early and effective defibrillation How quickly does the chance of survival describe for every minute of defibrillation delay in patients with ventricular fibrillation (VF) who do not receive bystander CPR? - correct answer. 7-10% What is the advantage of a systematic approach to patient assessment? - correct answer. Reduces the chances of missing important signs and symptoms What is the first step in the systematic approach to patient assessment? - correct answer. Initial impression What is the maximum amount of time you should simultaneously perform the pulse and breathing checks? - correct answer. 10 seconds The BLS Assessment is a systematic approach to BLS for trained healthcare providers. This approach stresses: - correct answer. Early CPR and defibrillation While you performing the BLS Assessment, you initiate high-quality CPR and assist ventilation with a bag-mask device. The AED does not recommend a shock. Which action in the Primary Assessment should you perform first? - correct answer. Determine if the patient's airway is patent The initial assessment reveals a conscious patent. The patient's airway is patent, and an advanced airway is not indicated. Which action is the Primary Assessment should perform next? - correct answer. Administer oxygen as needed Which action is part of the Secondary Assessment of conscious patient? - correct answer. Formulate a differential diagnosis Which of the following are the "H" causes of reversible cardiac arrest? - correct answer. Hypovolemia, hypoxia, acidosis, hyperkalemia/ hypokalemia, hypothermia Which of the following are the "T" causes of reversible cardiac arrest? - correct answer. Tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade, toxins, pulmonary thrombosis, coronary thrombosis What is the most common symptom of myocardial ischemia and infraction? - correct answer. Retrosternal chest pain Which demographic group experiencing acute coronary syndrome in more likely to present without chest pain? - correct answer. females Oxygen should be delivered to a patient who has obvious signs of heart failure if the oxygen saturation is less than --- or unknown - correct answer. 90% Obtaining a --- is the most important assessment tool for a patient displaying signs and symptoms of acute coronary syndromes. - correct answer. 12 lead EKG What is the time goal for how quickly you should complete a fibrinolytic checklist once the patient arrives in the emergency department? - correct answer. 10 minutes A patient without dyspnea has signs of acute coronary syndrome. There are no obvious signs of heart failure. You assess a noninvasively monitored oxyhemoglobin saturation. What is the oxygen saturation threshold below which supplemental oxygen would be required? - correct answer. 90% What are signs of clinical deterioration that would prompt the activation of a rapid system? - correct answer. Unexplained agitation, symptomatic hypertension, seizure What blood component is acted upon by aspirin administration during the management of a patient with acute coronary syndromes? - correct answer. Platelets Which is a contraindication to the administration of aspirin for the management of a patient with a cute coronary syndrome? - correct answer. Recent GI bleeding What is a physiologic effect of nitroglycerin? - correct answer. Reduces preload Which clinical finding represents a contraindication to the administration of nitroglycerin? - correct answer. Confirmed right ventricular infarction Which class of medications commonly given to patients with acute coronary syndromes may be adversely affected by morphine administration? - correct answer. Oral antiplatelet medications What is a benefit of morphine when given for the management of acute coronary syndromes? - correct answer. Central nervous system analgesia You obtain a 12-lead EKG in a patient with retrosternal chest pain. Which EKG finding is suggestive of high-risk non-ST-Segment Elevation acute coronary syndromes? - correct answer. Dynamic T-wave inversion Upon reviewing a patient's 12-lead EKG, you note ST-Segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III and AVF. How would you classify the EKG findings? - correct answer. ST-segment elevation myocardial infraction What happens when teams rapidly assess and intervene when patients have abnormal vital signs? - correct answer. The number of in-hospital cardiac arrests decreases In addition to decreased IHCA, what are some other benefits of implementing a rapid response system? - correct answer. Decreased ICU length to stay, decrease in total hospital length to stay What is the goal for first medical contact-to-balloon inflation time for a patient receiving percutaneous coronary intervention? - correct answer. 90 minutes What is the longest acceptable emergency department-door-to-needle time when fibrinolysis is the intended reperfusion strategy? - correct answer. 30 minutes Upon reviewing a patient's 12-lead EKG, you note ST-segment elevation of 2mm in leads II, III, and AVF. How would you classify the EKG findings? - correct answer. ST segment elevation myocardial infraction What is recommended time window after symptom onset for early fibrinolytic therapy or direct catheter- based reperfusion for patients with St-segment elevation myocardial infraction and no contraindications? - correct answer. Within 12 hours What is the benefit of morphine when given for the management of ACS? - correct answer. Central nervous system analgesia What is the most common type of stroke? - correct answer. Ischemic stroke What type of stroke occurs when a blood vessel is the brain suddenly ruptures into the surrounding tissue? - correct answer. Hemorrhagic stroke What is the benefit of morphine when given for the management of ACS? - correct answer. Central nervous system analgesia Which is a sign of stroke? - correct answer. Trouble speaking Which is a symptom of stroke? - correct answer. Sudden trouble seeing What validated abbreviated out-of-hospital neurologic evaluation tool contains 3 components: the facial droop, arm drift, and abnormal speech tests? - correct answer. (CPSS) Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale What is the estimated probability of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale with 1 abnormal finding when scored by prehospital provides? - correct answer. 72% Which is a stroke severity tool that helps EMS differentiate occlusion from non-large-vessel occlusion stroke? - correct answer. Los Angeles Motor Scale What is the primary advantage of using a stroke severity tool? - correct answer. It helps identify large-vessel occlusion stroke What is the most appropriate destination for patients with suspected acute ischemic stroke? - correct answer. Certified stroke center What is the highest level of stroke center certification? - correct answer. Comprehensive stroke center which is an advantage of EMS transport to a stroke hospital for a patient with suspected acute ischemic stroke? - correct answer. Responding providers can stabilize critical issues What is the longest acceptable emergency department door-to-needle time when fibrinolysis is the intended reperfusion strategy? - correct answer. 30 minutes What is the advantage of EMS alerting the receiving facility of the impending arrival of a patient with suspected acute ischemic stroke? - correct answer. The hospital can perform more efficient evaluation and management What is the goal for neurologic assessment by the stroke team or design and noncontrast computed tomography or magnetic resonance imaging performed after hospital arrival? - correct answer. 20 minutes What is the time goal for initiation of fibrinolytic therapy in appropriate patients without contraindications after hospital arrival? - correct answer. 45 minutes What is the door-to-needle time goal for 85% or more of acute ischemic stroke patients treated with IV thrombolytics? - correct answer. 60 minutes What is the door-to-device time goal for direct-arriving patients with acute ischemic stroke treated with endovascular therapy? - correct answer. 90 minutes Evidence suggests that there is a higher likelihood of good to excellent functional outcome when alteplase is given to adults with an acute ischemic stroke within what time frame? - correct answer. 3 hours