TEST III - CARE OF CLIENTS WITH PHYSIOLOGIC AND PSYCHOSOLIAL ALTERATIONS

TEST III - Care of Clients with Physiologic andPsychosocial Alterations 1. Nurse Michelle should know that the drainage isnormal 4 days after a sigmoid colostomy when the stool is: a. Green liquid b. Solid formed c. Loose, bloody d. Semiformed 2. Where would nurse Kristine place the call light for a male client with a right-sided brain attack and left homonymous hemianopsia? a. On the client’s right side b. On the client’s left side c. Directly in front of the client d. Where the client like 3. A male client is admitted to the emergency department following an accident. What are thefirst nursing actions of the nurse? a. Check respiration, circulation, neurological response. b. Align the spine, check pupils, and checkfor hemorrhage. c. Check respirations, stabilize spine, andcheck circulation. d. Assess level of consciousness and circulation. nitroglycerin, Nurse Arthur should know that it reduces preload and relieves angina by: a. Increasing contractility and slowingheart rate. b. Increasing AV conduction and heart rate. c. Decreasing contractility and oxygenconsumption. d. Decreasing venous return through vasodilation. 5. Nurse Patricia finds a female client who is post- myocardial infarction (MI) slumped on the side rails of the bed and unresponsive to shaking or shouting. Which is the nurse next action? a. Call for help and note the time. b. Clear the airway c. Give two sharp thumps to the precordium, and check the pulse. d. Administer two quick blows. 4. In evaluating the effect of 290 6. Nurse Monett is caring for a client recoveringfrom gastro-intestinal bleeding. The nurse should: a. Plan care so the client can receive 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep each night. b. Monitor vital signs every 2 hours. c. Make sure that the client takes food andmedications at prescribed intervals. d. Provide milk every 2 to 3 hours. 7. A male client was on warfarin (Coumadin) beforeadmission, and has been receiving heparin I.V. for 2 days. The partial thromboplastin time (PTT)is 68 seconds. What should Nurse Carla do? a. Stop the I.V. infusion of heparin andnotify the physician. b. Continue treatment as ordered. c. Expect the warfarin to increase the PTT. d. Increase the dosage, because the level islower than normal. 8. A client undergone ileostomy, when should thedrainage appliance be applied to the stoma? a. 24 hours later, when edema hassubsided. b. In the operating room. c. After the ileostomy begin to function. d. When the client is able to begin self-careprocedures. 9. A client undergone spinal anesthetic, it will be important that the nurse immediately position the client in: a. On the side, to prevent obstruction of airway by tongue. b. Flat on back. c. On the back, with knees flexed 15degrees. d. Flat on the stomach, with the head turned to the side. 10. While monitoring a male client several hours after a motor vehicle accident, which assessment data suggest increasing intracranial pressure? a. Blood pressure is decreased from160/90 to 110/70. b. Pulse is increased from 87 to 95, with anoccasional skipped beat. c. The client is oriented when arousedfrom sleep, and goes back to sleep immediately. 291 d. The client refuses dinner because ofanorexia. 11. Mrs. Cruz, 80 years old is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following symptomsmay appear first? a. Altered mental status and dehydration b. Fever and chills c. Hemoptysis and Dyspnea d. Pleuritic chest pain and cough 12. A male client has active tuberculosis (TB). Whichof the following symptoms will be exhibit? a. Chest and lower back pain b. Chills, fever, night sweats, andhemoptysis c. Fever of more than 104°F (40°C) andnausea d. Headache and photophobia 13. Mark, a 7-year-old client is brought to the emergency department. He’s tachypneic and afebrile and has a respiratory rate of 36 breaths/minute and has a nonproductive cough. He recently had a cold. Form this history; the client may have which of the following conditions? a. Acute asthma b. Bronchial pneumonia c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD) d. Emphysema 14. Marichu was given morphine sulfate for pain. She is sleeping and her respiratory rate is 4 breaths/minute. If action isn’t taken quickly, she might have which of the following reactions? a. Asthma attack b. Respiratory arrest c. Seizure d. Wake up on his own 15. A 77-year-old male client is admitted for electiveknee surgery. Physical examination reveals shallow respirations but no sign of respiratory distress. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change related to aging? a. Increased elastic recoil of the lungs b. Increased number of functionalcapillaries in the alveoli c. Decreased residual volume d. Decreased vital capacity 16. Nurse John is caring for a male client receivinglidocaine I.V. Which factor is the most relevant to administration of this medication? a. Decrease in arterial oxygen saturation(SaO2) when measured with a pulse oximeter. b. Increase in systemic blood pressure. c. Presence of premature ventricularcontractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor. d. Increase in intracranial pressure (ICP). 17. Nurse Ron is caring for a male client taking an anticoagulant. The nurse should teach the clientto: a. Report incidents of diarrhea. b. Avoid foods high in vitamin K c. Use a straight razor when shaving. d. Take aspirin to pain relief. 18. Nurse Lhynnette is preparing a site for the insertion of an I.V. catheter. The nurse shouldtreat excess hair at the site by: a. Leaving the hair intact b. Shaving the area c. Clipping the hair in the area d. Removing the hair with a depilatory. 19. Nurse Michelle is caring for an elderly female with osteoporosis. When teaching the client, thenurse should include information about which major complication: a. Bone fracture b. Loss of estrogen c. Negative calcium balance d. Dowager’s hump 20. Nurse Len is teaching a group of women to perform BSE. The nurse should explain that thepurpose of performing the examination is to discover: a. Cancerous lumps b. Areas of thickness or fullness c. Changes from previous examinations. d. Fibrocystic masses 21. When caring for a female client who is being treated for hyperthyroidism, it is important to: a. Provide extra blankets and clothing tokeep the client warm. b. Monitor the client for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight loss during thyroid replacementtherapy. c. Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest. d. Encourage the client to be active toprevent constipation. 22. Nurse Kris is teaching a client with history of atherosclerosis. To decrease the risk of atherosclerosis, the nurse should encourage theclient to: a. Avoid focusing on his weight. b. Increase his activity level. c. Follow a regular diet. d. Continue leading a high-stress lifestyle. 23. Nurse Greta is working on a surgical floor. NurseGreta must logroll a client following a: a. Laminectomy b. Thoracotomy c. Hemorrhoidectomy d. Cystectomy. 24. A 55-year old client underwent cataract removalwith intraocular lens implant. Nurse Oliver is giving the client discharge instructions. These instructions should include which of the following? a. Avoid lifting objects weighing more than5 lb (2.25 kg). b. Lie on your abdomen when in bed c. Keep rooms brightly lit. d. Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist. 25. George should be taught about testicularexaminations during: a. when sexual activity starts b. After age 69 c. After age 40 d. Before age 20. 26. A male client undergone a colon resection. Whileturning him, wound dehiscence with evisceration occurs. Nurse Trish first response is to: During routine assessment, the nurse notices Cheyne- Strokes respirations. Cheyne-strokes respirations are: a. A progressively deeper breaths followedby shallower breaths with apneic periods. b. Rapid, deep breathing with abruptpauses between each breath. c. Rapid, deep breathing and irregularbreathing without pauses. d. Shallow breathing with an increasedrespiratory rate. 28. Nurse Bea is assessing a male client with heartfailure. The breath sounds commonly auscultated in clients with heart failure are: a. Tracheal b. Fine crackles c. Coarse crackles d. Friction rubs 29. The nurse is caring for Kenneth a. Call the physician b. Place a saline-soaked sterile dressing onthe wound. c. Take a blood pressure and pulse. d. Pull the dehiscence closed. experiencing an acute asthma attack. The client stops wheezing and breath sounds aren’t audible. The reason for this change is that: a. The attack is over. b. The airways are so swollen that no aircannot get through. c. The swelling has decreased. d. Crackles have replaced wheezes. 30. Mike with epilepsy is having a seizure. During the active seizure phase, the nurse should: a. Place the client on his back remove dangerous objects, and insert a biteblock. b. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and insert a biteblock. c. Place the client o his back, remove dangerous objects, and hold down hisarms. d. Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect his head. 31. After insertion of a cheat tube for a pneumothorax, a client becomes hypotensive with neck vein distention, tracheal shift, absent breath sounds, and diaphoresis. Nurse Amanda suspects a tension pneumothorax has 293 b. Kinked or obstructed chest tube c. Excessive water in the water-sealchamber d. Excessive chest tube drainage 32. Nurse Maureen is talking to a male client; the client begins choking on his lunch. He’s coughing forcefully. The nurse should: a. Stand him up and perform the abdominal thrust maneuver from behind. b. Lay him down, straddle him, andperform the abdominal thrust maneuver. c. Leave him to get assistance d. Stay with him but not intervene at thistime. 33. Nurse Ron is taking a health history of an 84 year old client. Which information will be most useful to the nurse for planning care? a. General health for the last 10 years. b. Current health promotion activities. c. Family history of diseases. d. Marital status. 34. When performing oral care on a comatose client,Nurse Krina should: a. Apply lemon glycerin to the client’s lips at least every 2 hours. b. Brush the teeth with client lying supine. c. Place the client in a side lying position,with the head of the bed lowered. d. Clean the client’s mouth with hydrogen peroxide. 35. A 77-year-old male client is admitted with a diagnosis of dehydration and change in mentalstatus. He’s being hydrated with L.V. fluids. When the nurse takes his vital signs, she noteshe has a fever of 103°F (39.4°C) a cough producing yellow sputum and pleuritic chest pain. The nurse suspects this client may have which of the following conditions? a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome(ARDS) b. Myocardial infarction (MI) c. Pneumonia d. Tuberculosis 36. Nurse Oliver is working in an outpatient clinic. He has been alerted that there is an outbreak of tuberculosis (TB). Which of the following clientsentering the clinic today most likely to have TB? a. A 16-year-old female high schoolstudent b. A 33-year-old day-care worker c. A 43-yesr-old homeless man with ahistory of alcoholism d. A 54-year-old businessman 37. Virgie with a positive Mantoux test result will besent for a chest X-ray. The nurse is aware that which of the following reasons this is done? a. To confirm the diagnosis b. To determine if a repeat skin test is needed c. To determine the extent of lesions d. To determine if this is a primary orsecondary infection 38. Kennedy with acute asthma showing inspiratoryand expiratory wheezes and a decreased forcedexpiratory volume should be treated with whichof the following classes of medication right away? a. Beta-adrenergic blockers b. Bronchodilators c. Inhaled steroids d. Oral steroids 39. Mr. Vasquez 56-year-old client with a 40-year history of smoking one to two packs of cigarettesper day has a chronic cough producing thick sputum, peripheral edema and cyanotic nail beds. Based on this information, he most likely has which of the following conditions? a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome(ARDS) b. Asthma c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis d. Emphysema Situation: Francis, age 46 is admitted to the hospital withdiagnosis of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia. 40. The treatment for patients with leukemia is bone marrow transplantation. Which statement about bone marrow transplantation is not correct? a. The patient is under local anesthesiaduring the procedure b. The aspirated bone marrow is mixedwith heparin. c. The aspiration site is the posterior oranterior iliac crest. d. The recipient receives cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for 4 consecutive days before the procedure. 41. After several days of admission, Francis becomesdisoriented and complains of frequent headaches. The nurse in-charge first action would be: a. Call the physician b. Document the patient’s status in his charts. c. Prepare oxygen treatment d. Raise the side rails 42. During routine care, Francis asks the nurse, “How can I be anemic if this disease causes increased my white blood cell production?” The nurse in-charge best response would be that the increased number of white blood cells (WBC) is: a. Crowd red blood cells b. Are not responsible for the anemia. c. Uses nutrients from other cells d. Have an abnormally short life span ofcells. 43. Diagnostic assessment of Francis would probablynot reveal: a. Predominance of lymhoblasts b. Leukocytosis c. Abnormal blast cells in the bone marrow d. Elevated thrombocyte counts 44. Robert, a 57-year-old client with acute arterial occlusion of the left leg undergoes an emergency embolectomy. Six hours later, the nurse isn’t able to obtain pulses in his left foot using Doppler ultrasound. The nurse immediately notifies the physician, and asks herto prepare the client for surgery. As the nurse enters the client’s room to prepare him, he states that he won’t have any more surgery.Which of the following is the best initial response by the nurse? a. Explain the risks of not having thesurgery b. Notifying the physician immediately c. Notifying the nursing supervisor d. Recording the client’s refusal in thenurses’ notes 45. During the endorsement, which of the followingclients should the on-duty nurse assess first? a. The 58-year-old client who was admitted2 days ago with heart failure, blood pressure of 126/76 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/ minute. b. The 89-year-old client with end-stage right-sided heart failure, blood pressureof 78/50 mm Hg, and a “do not resuscitate” order c. The 62-year-old client who was admitted1 day ago with thrombophlebitis and is receiving L.V. heparin d. The 75-year-old client who was admitted1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem) 46. Honey, a 23-year old client complains of substernal chest pain and states that her heart feels like “it’s racing out of the chest”. She reports no history of cardiac disorders. The nurse attaches her to a cardiac monitor and notes sinus tachycardia with a rate of 136beats/minutes. Breath sounds are clear andthe respiratory rate is 26 breaths/minutes. Which of the following drugs should the nurse question the client about using? a. Barbiturates b. Opioids c. Cocaine d. Benzodiazepines 47. A 51-year-old female client tells the nurse in- charge that she has found a painless lump in herright breast during her monthly self- examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client's lump is cancerous? a. Eversion of the right nipple and mobilemass b. Nonmobile mass with irregular edges c. Mobile mass that is soft and easilydelineated d. Nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes 48. A 35-year-old client with vaginal cancer asks the nurse, "What is the usual treatment for this typeof cancer?" Which treatment should the nurse name? a. Surgery b. Chemotherapy c. Radiation d. Immunotherapy 49. Cristina undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion 295 according to the TNM staging system as follows:TIS, N0, M0. What does this classification mean? a. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and noevidence of distant metastasis b. Carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distantmetastasis c. Can't assess tumor or regional lymphnodes and no evidence of metastasis d. Carcinoma in situ, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes,and ascending degrees of distant metastasis 50. Lydia undergoes a laryngectomy to treat laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client howto care for the neck stoma, the nurse should include which instruction? a. "Keep the stoma uncovered." b. "Keep the stoma dry." c. "Have a family member perform stomacare initially until you get used to the procedure." d. "Keep the stoma moist." 51. A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks thenurse, "Which is the most common type of cancer in women?" The nurse replies that it's breast cancer. Which type of cancer causes the most deaths in women? a. Breast cancer b. Lung cancer c. Brain cancer d. Colon and rectal cancer 52. Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner's syndrome when the tumor invades the ribs andaffects the sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note: a. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of theface. b. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss,and fever. c. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy ofarm and hand muscles, both on the affected side. d. hoarseness and dysphagia. 53. Vic asks the nurse what PSA is. The nurse shouldreply that it stands for: a. prostate-specific antigen, which is usedto screen for prostate cancer. b. protein serum antigen, which is used todetermine protein levels. c. pneumococcal strep antigen, which is abacteria that causes pneumonia. d. Papanicolaou-specific antigen, which isused to screen for cervical cancer. 54. What is the most important postoperative instruction that nurse Kate must give a client who has just returned from the operating roomafter receiving a subarachnoid block? a. "Avoid drinking liquids until the gagreflex returns." b. "Avoid eating milk products for 24hours." c. "Notify a nurse if you experience bloodin your urine." d. "Remain supine for the time specified bythe physician." 55. A male client suspected of having colorectal cancer will require which diagnostic study toconfirm the diagnosis? a. Stool Hematest b. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) c. Sigmoidoscopy d. Abdominal computed tomography (CT)scan 56. During a breast examination, which finding moststrongly suggests that the Luz has breast cancer? a. Slight asymmetry of the breasts. b. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling ofthe overlying skin c. Bloody discharge from the nipple d. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that change with the menstrualcycle 57. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible metastasis. Which of the following isone of the most common metastasis sites for cancer cells? a. Liver b. Colon c. Reproductive tract d. White blood cells (WBCs) 58. Nurse Mandy is preparing a client for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which ofthe following would pose a threat to the client? a. The client lies still. b. The client asks questions. c. The client hears thumping sounds. d. The client wears a watch and weddingband. 59. Nurse Cecile is teaching a female client about preventing osteoporosis. Which of the followingteaching points is correct? a. Obtaining an X-ray of the bones every 3years is recommended to detect bone loss. b. To avoid fractures, the client shouldavoid strenuous exercise. c. The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a wide varietyof foods. d. Obtaining the recommended daily allowance of calcium requires taking acalcium supplement. 60. Before Jacob undergoes arthroscopy, the nursereviews the assessment findings for contraindications for this procedure. Which finding is a contraindication? a. Joint pain b. Joint deformity c. Joint flexion of less than 50% d. Joint stiffness 61. Mr. Rodriguez is admitted with severe pain in the knees. Which form of arthritis is characterized by urate deposits and joint pain, usually in the feet and legs, and occurs primarilyin men over age 30? a. Septic arthritis b. Traumatic arthritis c. Intermittent arthritis d. Gouty arthritis 62. A heparin infusion at 1,500 unit/hour is orderedfor a 64-year-old client with stroke in evolution.The infusion contains 25,000 units of heparin in500 ml of saline solution. How many milliliters per hour should be given? a. 15 ml/hour b. 30 ml/hour c. 45 ml/hour d. 50 ml/hour 63. A 76-year-old male client had a thromboembolicright stroke; his left arm is swollen. Which of the following conditions may cause swelling after a stroke? a. Elbow contracture secondary tospasticity b. Loss of muscle contraction decreasingvenous return c. Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due toimmobility of the ipsilateral side d. Hypoalbuminemia due to protein escaping from an inflamed glomerulus 64. Heberden’s nodes are a common sign of osteoarthritis. Which of the following statementis correct about this deformity? a. It appears only in men b. It appears on the distal interphalangealjoint c. It appears on the proximal interphalangeal joint d. It appears on the dorsolateral aspect ofthe interphalangeal joint. 65. Which of the following statements explains themain difference between rheumatoid arthritis and osteoarthritis? a. Osteoarthritis is gender- specific, rheumatoid arthritis isn’t b. Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic c. Osteoarthritis is a systemic disease, rheumatoid arthritis is localized d. Osteoarthritis has dislocations and subluxations, rheumatoid arthritis doesn’t 66. Mrs. Cruz uses a cane for assistance in walking. Which of the following statements is true abouta cane or other assistive devices? a. A walker is a better choice than a cane. b. The cane should be used on the affectedside c. The cane should be used on theunaffected side d. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate without thecane 67. A male client with type 1 diabetes is scheduledto receive 30 U of 70/30 insulin. There is no 70/30 insulin available. As a substitution, the nurse may give the client: 297 a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutralprotamine Hagedorn (NPH). b. 21 U regular insulin and 9 U NPH. c. 10 U regular insulin and 20 U NPH. d. 20 U regular insulin and 10 U NPH. 68. Nurse Len should expect to administer whichmedication to a client with gout? a. aspirin b. furosemide (Lasix) c. colchicines d. calcium gluconate (Kalcinate) 69. Mr. Domingo with a history of hypertension isdiagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism. This diagnosis indicates that the client's hypertension is caused by excessive hormonesecretion from which of the following glands? a. Adrenal cortex b. Pancreas c. Adrenal medulla d. Parathyroid 70. For a diabetic male client with a foot ulcer, the doctor orders bed rest, a wet-to-dry dressing change every shift, and blood glucose monitoring before meals and bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry dressings used for this client? a. They contain exudate and provide amoist wound environment. b. They protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promotehealing. c. They debride the wound and promotehealing by secondary intention. d. They prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wounddiscomfort. 71. Nurse Zeny is caring for a client in acute addisonian crisis. Which laboratory data wouldthe nurse expect to find? a. Hyperkalemia b. Reduced blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperglycemia 72. A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone(SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate? a. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered b. Encouraging increased oral intake c. Restricting fluids d. Administering glucose- containing I.V.fluids as ordered 73. A female client tells nurse Nikki that she has been working hard for the last 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes mellitus with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness ofthe client's efforts, the nurse should check: a. urine glucose level. b. fasting blood glucose level. c. serum fructosamine level. d. glycosylated hemoglobin level. 74. Nurse Trinity administered neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to a diabetic client at 7 a.m. At what time would the nurse expect theclient to be most at risk for a hypoglycemic reaction? a. 10:00 am b. Noon c. 4:00 pm d. 10:00 pm 75. The adrenal cortex is responsible for producingwhich substances? a. Glucocorticoids and androgens b. Catecholamines and epinephrine c. Mineralocorticoids and catecholamines d. Norepinephrine and epinephrine 76. On the third day after a partial thyroidectomy, Proserfina exhibits muscle twitching and hyperirritability of the nervous system. When questioned, the client reports numbness and tingling of the mouth and fingertips. Suspectinga life- threatening electrolyte disturbance, the nurse notifies the surgeon immediately. Which electrolyte disturbance most commonly follows thyroid surgery? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hyperkalemia d. Hypermagnesemia 77. Which laboratory test value is elevated in clientswho smoke and can't be used as a general indicator of cancer? a. Acid phosphatase level b. Serum calcitonin level c. Alkaline phosphatase level d. Carcinoembryonic antigen level 78. Francis with anemia has been admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which assessment findingsare characteristic of iron-deficiency anemia? a. Nights sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea b. Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor c. Nausea, vomiting, and anorexia d. Itching, rash, and jaundice 79. In teaching a female client who is HIV-positive about pregnancy, the nurse would know more teaching is necessary when the client says: a. The baby can get the virus from myplacenta." b. "I'm planning on starting on birth controlpills." c. "Not everyone who has the virus givesbirth to a baby who has the virus." d. "I'll need to have a C-section if I becomepregnant and have a baby." 80. When preparing Judy with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for discharge to the home, the nurse should be sureto include which instruction? a. "Put on disposable gloves beforebathing." b. "Sterilize all plates and utensils in boilingwater." c. "Avoid sharing such articles astoothbrushes and razors." d. "Avoid eating foods from serving dishesshared by other family members." 81. Nurse Marie is caring for a 32-year-old client admitted with pernicious anemia. Which set of findings should the nurse expect when assessingthe client? a. Pallor, bradycardia, and reduced pulsepressure b. Pallor, tachycardia, and a sore tongue c. Sore tongue, dyspnea, and weight gain d. Angina, double vision, and anorexia 82. After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. Nurse Celestina suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse dofirst? a. Page an anesthesiologist immediatelyand prepare to intubate the client. b. Administer epinephrine, as prescribed,and prepare to intubate the client if necessary. c. Administer the antidote for penicillin, as prescribed, and continue to monitor the client's vital signs. d. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter and begin to infuse I.V. fluids as ordered. 83. Mr. Marquez with rheumatoid arthritis is about to begin aspirin therapy to reduce inflammation. When teaching the client about aspirin, the nurse discusses adverse reactions to prolonged aspirin therapy. These include: a. weight gain. b. fine motor tremors. c. respiratory acidosis. d. bilateral hearing loss. 84. A 23-year-old client is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). After recovering from the initial shock of the diagnosis, the clientexpresses a desire to learn as much as possible about HIV and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). When teaching the client about the immune system, the nurse states that adaptive immunity is provided by which type of white blood cell? a. Neutrophil b. Basophil c. Monocyte d. Lymphocyte 85. In an individual with Sjögren's syndrome, nursingcare should focus on: a. moisture replacement. b. electrolyte balance. c. nutritional supplementation. d. arrhythmia management. 86. During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia,Mathew develops abdominal pain, fever, and "horse barn" smelling diarrhea. It would be mostimportant for the nurse to advise the physician to order: a. enzyme-linked immunosuppressantassay (ELISA) test. b. electrolyte panel and hemogram. c. stool for Clostridium difficile test. d. flat plate X-ray of the abdomen. 87. A male client seeks medical evaluation for fatigue, night sweats, and a 20-lb weight loss in 6weeks. To confirm that the client has been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV), the nurse expects the physician to order: 299 a. E-rosette immunofluorescence. b. quantification of T-lymphocytes. c. enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). d. Western blot test with ELISA. 88. A complete blood count is commonly performedbefore a Joe goes into surgery. What does this test seek to identify? a. Potential hepatic dysfunction indicated by decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)and creatinine levels b. Low levels of urine constituents normallyexcreted in the urine c. Abnormally low hematocrit (HCT) andhemoglobin (Hb) levels d. Electrolyte imbalance that could affect the blood's ability to coagulate properly 89. While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC),the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters? a. Platelet count, prothrombin time, andpartial thromboplastin time b. Platelet count, blood glucose levels, andwhite blood cell (WBC) count c. Thrombin time, calcium levels, andpotassium levels d. Fibrinogen level, WBC, and plateletcount 90. When taking a dietary history from a newly admitted female client, Nurse Len should remember that which of the following foods is acommon allergen? a. Bread b. Carrots c. Orange d. Strawberries 91. Nurse John is caring for clients in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following phone calls should the nurse return first? a. A client with hepatitis A who states, “Myarms and legs are itching.” b. A client with cast on the right leg who states, “I have a funny feeling in my rightleg.” c. A client with osteomyelitis of the spine who states, “I am so nauseous that Ican’t eat.” d. A client with rheumatoid arthritis who states, “I am having trouble sleeping.” 92. Nurse Sarah is caring for clients on the surgicalfloor and has just received report from the previous shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first? a. A 35-year-old admitted three hours agowith a gunshot wound; 1.5 cm area of dark drainage noted on the dressing. b. A 43-year-old who had a mastectomy two days ago; 23 ml of serosanguinousfluid noted in the Jackson-Pratt drain. c. A 59-year-old with a collapsed lung due to an accident; no drainage noted in theprevious eight hours. d. A 62-year-old who had an abdominal- perineal resection three days ago; client complaints of chills. 93. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago for treatment ofGrave’s disease. The nurse would be most concerned if which of the following was observed? a. Blood pressure 138/82, respirations 16, oral temperature 99 degrees Fahrenheit. b. The client supports his head and neckwhen turning his head to the right. c. The client spontaneously flexes his wristwhen the blood pressure is obtained. d. The client is drowsy and complains ofsore throat. 94. Julius is admitted with complaints of severe painin the lower right quadrant of the abdomen. To assist with pain relief, the nurse should take which of the following actions? a. Encourage the client to change positionsfrequently in bed. b. Administer Demerol 50 mg IM q 4 hoursand PRN. c. Apply warmth to the abdomen with aheating pad. d. Use comfort measures and pillows toposition the client. 95. Nurse Tina prepares a client for peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following actions shouldthe nurse take first? a. Assess for a bruit and a thrill. b. Warm the dialysate solution. c. Position the client on the left side. d. Insert a Foley catheter 96. Nurse Jannah teaches an elderly client with right-sided weakness how to use cane. Which ofthe following behaviors, if demonstrated by the client to the nurse, indicates that the teaching was effective? a. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the can forward followed by the right leg, and then moves the left leg. b. The client holds the cane with his right hand, moves the cane forward followedby his left leg, and then moves the rightleg. c. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followedby the right leg, and then moves the left leg. d. The client holds the cane with his left hand, moves the cane forward followedby his left leg, and then moves the rightleg. 97. An elderly client is admitted to the nursing homesetting. The client is occasionally confused and her gait is often unsteady. Which of the following actions, if taken by the nurse, is most appropriate? a. Ask the woman’s family to providepersonal items such as photos or mementos. b. Select a room with a bed by the door sothe woman can look down the hall. c. Suggest the woman eat her meals in theroom with her roommate. d. Encourage the woman to ambulate inthe halls twice a day. 98. Nurse Evangeline teaches an elderly client how to use a standard aluminum walker. Which of the following behaviors, if demonstrated by theclient, indicates that the nurse’s teaching was effective? a. The client slowly pushes the walkerforward 12 inches, then takes smallsteps forward while leaning on the walker. b. The client lifts the walker, moves itforward 10 inches, and then takes several small steps forward. c. The client supports his weight on the walker while advancing it forward, then takes small steps while balancing on thewalker. d. The client slides the walker 18 inches forward, then takes small steps while holding onto the walker for balance. 99. Nurse Deric is supervising a group of elderly clients in a residential home setting. The nurse knows that the elderly are at greater risk of developing sensory deprivation for what reason? a. Increased sensitivity to the side effectsof medications. b. Decreased visual, auditory, andgustatory abilities. c. Isolation from their families and familiarsurroundings. d. Decrease musculoskeletal function andmobility. 100. A male client with emphysema becomes restless and confused. What step should nurse Jasmine take next? a. Encourage the client to perform pursedlip breathing. b. Check the client’s temperature. c. Assess the client’s potassium level. d. Increase the client’s oxygen flow rate. 301 Answers and Rationale – Care of Clients withPhysiologic and Psychosocial Alterations 1. Answer: (C) Loose, bloody Rationale: Normal bowel function and soft- formed stool usually do not occur until aroundthe seventh day following surgery. The stool consistency is related to how much water is being absorbed. 2. Answer: (A) On the client’s right side Rationale: The client has left visual field blindness. The client will see only from theright side. 3. Answer: (C) Check respirations, stabilize spine,and check circulation Rationale: Checking the airway would bepriority, and a neck injury should be suspected. 4. Answer: (D) Decreasing venous return throughvasodilation. Rationale: The significant effect of nitroglycerin is vasodilation and decreased venous return, so the heart does not have towork hard. 5. Answer: (A) Call for help and note the time. Rationale: Having established, by stimulating the client, that the client is unconscious ratherthan sleep, the nurse should immediately call for help. This may be done by dialing the operator from the client’s phone and giving the hospital code for cardiac arrest and the client’s room number to the operator, of if thephone is not available, by pulling the emergency call button. Noting the time is important baseline information for cardiac arrest procedure 6. Answer: (C) Make sure that the client takes food and medications at prescribed intervals. Rationale: Food and drug therapy will preventthe accumulation of hydrochloric acid, or will neutralize and buffer the acid that does accumulate. 7. Answer: (B) Continue treatment as ordered. Rationale: The effects of heparin are monitored by the PTT is normally 30 to 45 seconds; the therapeutic level is 1.5 to 2 timesthe normal level. 8. Answer: (B) In the operating room. Rationale: The stoma drainage bag is appliedin the operating room. Drainage from the ileostomy contains secretions that are rich in digestive enzymes and highly irritating to the skin. Protection of the skin from the effects of these enzymes is begun at once. Skin exposedto these enzymes even for a short time becomes reddened, painful, and excoriated. 9. Answer: (B) Flat on back. Rationale: To avoid the complication of a painful spinal headache that can last for several days, the client is kept in flat in a supine position for approximately 4 to 12 hours postoperatively. Headaches are believed to be causes by the seepage of cerebral spinal fluid from the puncture site. Bykeeping the client flat, cerebral spinal fluid pressures are equalized, which avoids trauma to the neurons. 10. Answer: (C) The client is oriented when aroused from sleep, and goes back to sleepimmediately. Rationale: This finding suggest that the levelof consciousness is decreasing. 11. Answer: (A) Altered mental status anddehydration Rationale: Fever, chills, hemortysis, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are the common symptoms of pneumonia, but elderlyclients may first appear with only an altered lentil status and dehydration due to a bluntedimmune response. 12. Answer: (B) Chills, fever, night sweats, andhemoptysis Rationale: Typical signs and symptoms are chills, fever, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest pain may be present from coughing, butisn’t usual. Clients with TB typically have low- grade fevers, not higher than 102°F (38.9°C). Nausea, headache, and photophobia aren’t usual TB symptoms. 13. Answer:(A) Acute asthma Rationale: Based on the client’s history and symptoms, acute asthma is the most likely diagnosis. He’s unlikely to have bronchial pneumonia without a productive cough andfever and he’s too young to have developed (COPD) and emphysema. 14. Answer: (B) Respiratory arrest Rationale: Narcotics can cause respiratory arrest if given in large quantities. It’s unlikely the client will have asthma attack or a seizure or wake up on his own. 15. Answer: (D) Decreased vital capacity Rationale: Reduction in vital capacity is a normal physiologic change includes decreasedelastic recoil of the lungs, fewer functional capillaries in the alveoli, and an increased inresidual volume. 16. Answer: (C) Presence of premature ventricularcontractions (PVCs) on a cardiac monitor. Rationale: Lidocaine drips are commonly used to treat clients whose arrhythmias haven’t been controlled with oral medication and whoare having PVCs that are visible on the cardiac monitor. SaO2, blood pressure, and ICP are important factors but aren’t as significant as PVCs in the situation. 17. Answer: (B) Avoid foods high in vitamin K Rationale: The client should avoid consuming large amounts of vitamin K because vitamin K can interfere with anticoagulation. The client may need to report diarrhea, but isn’t effect of taking an anticoagulant. An electric razor- not a straight razor- should be used to preventcuts that cause bleeding. Aspirin may increasethe risk of bleeding; acetaminophen should beused to pain relief. 18. Answer: (C) Clipping the hair in the area Rationale: Hair can be a source of infection and should be removed by clipping. Shavingthe area can cause skin abrasions and depilatories can irritate the skin. 19. Answer: (A) Bone fracture Rationale: Bone fracture is a major complication of osteoporosis that results when loss of calcium and phosphate increasedthe fragility of bones. Estrogen deficiencies result from menopause-not osteoporosis. Calcium and vitamin D supplements may be used to support normal bone metabolism, Buta negative calcium balance isn’t a complication of osteoporosis. Dowager’s hump results from bone fractures. It developswhen repeated vertebral fractures increase spinal curvature. 20. Answer: (C) Changes from previousexaminations. Rationale: Women are instructed to examine themselves to discover changes that have occurred in the breast. Only a physician can diagnose lumps that are cancerous, areas of thickness or fullness that signal the presence of a malignancy, or masses that are fibrocysticas opposed to malignant. 21. Answer: (C) Balance the client’s periods of activity and rest. Rationale: A client with hyperthyroidism needs to be encouraged to balance periods of activity and rest. Many clients with hyperthyroidism are hyperactive and complainof feeling very warm. 22. Answer: (B) Increase his activity level. Rationale: The client should be encouraged toincrease his activity level. aintaining an ideal weight; following a low- cholesterol, low sodium diet; and avoiding stress are all important factors in decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis. 23. Answer: (A) Laminectomy Rationale: The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be log rolled to keep the spinal column straight whenturning. Thoracotomy and cystectomy may turn themselves or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery. 24. Answer: (D) Avoiding straining during bowel movement or bending at the waist. Rationale: The client should avoid straining, lifting heavy objects, and coughing harshly because these activities increase intraocular pressure. Typically, the client is instructed to avoid lifting objects weighing more than 15 lb(7kg) – not 5lb. instruct the client when lying in bed to lie on either the side or back. The client should avoid bright light by wearing sunglasses. 25. Answer: (D) Before age 20. Rationale: Testicular cancer commonly occursin men between ages 20 and 30. A male clientshould be taught how to perform testicular self- examination before age 20, preferably when he enters his teens. 26. Answer: (B) Place a saline- soaked steriledressing on the wound. Rationale: The nurse should first place saline- soaked sterile dressings on the open wound toprevent tissue drying and possible infection. Then the nurse should call the physician andtake the client’s vital signs. The dehiscence needs to be surgically closed, so the nurse should never try to close it. 27. Answer: (A) A progressively deeper breathsfollowed by shallower breaths with apneic periods. Rationale: Cheyne-Strokes respirations are breaths that become progressively deeper fallowed by shallower respirations with apneas periods. Biot’s respirations are rapid, 303 deep breathing with abrupt pauses between each breath, and equal depth between each breath. Kussmaul’s respirationa are rapid, deep breathing without pauses. Tachypnea isshallow breathing with increased respiratory rate. 28. Answer: (B) Fine crackles Rationale: Fine crackles are caused by fluid in the alveoli and commonly occur in clients withheart failure. Tracheal breath sounds are auscultated over the trachea. Coarse crackles are caused by secretion accumulation in the airways. Friction rubs occur with pleural inflammation. 29. Answer: (B) The airways are so swollen that noair cannot get through Rationale: During an acute attack, wheezing may stop and breath sounds become inaudible because the airways are so swollenthat air can’t get through. If the attack is overand swelling has decreased, there would be no more wheezing and less emergent concern.Crackles do not replace wheezes during an acute asthma attack. 30. Answer: (D) Place the client on his side, remove dangerous objects, and protect hishead. Rationale: During the active seizure phase, initiate precautions by placing the client on hisside, removing dangerous objects, and protecting his head from injury. A bite block should never be inserted during the active seizure phase. Insertion can break the teeth and lead to aspiration. 31. Answer: (B) Kinked or obstructed chest tube Rationales: Kinking and blockage of the chesttube is a common cause of a tension pneumothorax. Infection and excessive drainage won’t cause a tension pneumothorax. Excessive water won’t affect the chest tube drainage. 32. Answer: (D) Stay with him but not intervene atthis time. Rationale: If the client is coughing, he should be able to dislodge the object or cause a complete obstruction. If complete obstructionoccurs, the nurse should perform the abdominal thrust maneuver with the client standing. If the client is unconscious, she should lay him down. A nurse should never leave a choking client alone. 33. Answer: (B) Current health promotionactivities Rationale: Recognizing an individual’s positive health measures is very useful. General healthin the previous 10 years is important, however, the current activities of an 84 year old client are most significant in planning care.Family history of disease for a client in later years is of minor significance. Marital status information may be important for discharge planning but is not as significant for addressing the immediate medical problem. 34. Answer: (C) Place the client in a side lying position, with the head of the bed lowered. Rationale: The client should be positioned in a side-lying position with the head of the bed lowered to prevent aspiration. A small amountof toothpaste should be used and the mouth swabbed or suctioned to remove pooled secretions. Lemon glycerin can be drying if used for extended periods. Brushing the teeth with the client lying supine may lead to aspiration. Hydrogen peroxide is caustic to tissues and should not be used. 35. Answer: (C) Pneumonia Rationale: Fever productive cough and pleuritic chest pain are common signs and symptoms of pneumonia. The client with ARDS has dyspnea and hypoxia with worsening hypoxia over time, if not treatedaggressively. Pleuritic chest pain varies with respiration, unlike the constant chest pain during an MI; so this client most likely isn’t having an MI. the client with TB typically has acough producing blood-tinged sputum. A sputum culture should be obtained to confirmthe nurse’s suspicions. 36. Answer: (C) A 43-yesr-old homeless man witha history of alcoholism Rationale: Clients who are economically disadvantaged, malnourished, and have reduced immunity, such as a client with a history of alcoholism, are at extremely high risk for developing TB. A high school student,day- care worker, and businessman probably have a much low risk of contracting TB. 37. Answer: (C ) To determine the extent oflesions Rationale: If the lesions are large enough, the chest X-ray will show their presence in the lungs. Sputum culture confirms the diagnosis. There can be false-positive and false-negative skin test results. A chest X-ray can’t determineif this is a primary or secondary infection. 38. Answer: (B) Bronchodilators Rationale: Bronchodilators are the first line oftreatment for asthma because broncho- constriction is the cause of reduced airflow. Beta- adrenergic blockers aren’t used to treatasthma and can cause broncho- constriction. Inhaled oral steroids may be given to reduce the inflammation but aren’t used for emergency relief. 39. Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis Rationale: Because of this extensive smoking history and symptoms the client most likely has chronic obstructive bronchitis. Client withARDS have acute symptoms of hypoxia and typically need large amounts of oxygen. Clients with asthma and emphysema tend notto have chronic cough or peripheral edema. 40. Answer: (A) The patient is under local anesthesia during the procedure Rationale: Before the procedure, the patient is administered with drugs that would help to prevent infection and rejection of the transplanted cells such as antibiotics, cytotoxic, and corticosteroids. During the transplant, the patient is placed under generalanesthesia. 41. Answer: (D) Raise the side rails Rationale: A patient who is disoriented is at risk of falling out of bed. The initial action ofthe nurse should be raising the side rails to ensure patients safety. 42. Answer: (A) Crowd red blood cells Rationale: The excessive production of whiteblood cells crowd out red blood cells production which causes anemia to occur. 43. Answer: (B) Leukocytosis Rationale: Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)is characterized by increased production of leukocytes and lymphocytes resulting in leukocytosis, and proliferation of these cells within the bone marrow, spleen and liver. 44. Answer: (A) Explain the risks of not having thesurgery Rationale: The best initial response is to explain the risks of not having the surgery. If the client understands the risks but still refuses the nurse should notify the physician and the nurse supervisor and then record theclient’s refusal in the nurses’ notes. 45. Answer: (D) The 75-year-old client who wasadmitted 1 hour ago with new-onset atrial fibrillation and is receiving L.V. dilitiazem (Cardizem) Rationale: The client with atrial fibrillation has the greatest potential to become unstable andis on L.V. medication that requires close monitoring. After assessing this client, the nurse should assess the client with thrombophlebitis who is receiving a heparin infusion, and then the 58- year-old client admitted 2 days ago with heart failure (his signs and symptoms are resolving and don’t require immediate attention). The lowest priority is the 89-year-old with end- stage right-sided heart failure, who requires time-consuming supportive measures. 46. Answer: (C) Cocaine Rationale: Because of the client’s age and negative medical history, the nurse should question her about cocaine use. Cocaine increases myocardial oxygen consumption andcan cause coronary artery spasm, leading to tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, myocardialischemia, and myocardial infarction. Barbiturate overdose may trigger respiratory depression and slow pulse. Opioids can causemarked respiratory depression, while benzodiazepines can cause drowsiness and confusion. 47. Answer: (B) Nonmobile mass with irregularedges Rationale: Breast cancer tumors are fixed, hard, and poorly delineated with irregular edges. A mobile mass that is soft and easily delineated is most often a fluid- filled benign cyst. Axillary lymph nodes may or may not bepalpable on initial detection of a cancerous mass. Nipple retraction — not eversion — may be a sign of cancer. 48. Answer: (C) Radiation Rationale: The usual treatment for vaginal cancer is external or intravaginal radiation therapy. Less often, surgery is performed. Chemotherapy typically is prescribed only if vaginal cancer is diagnosed in an early stage,which is rare. Immunotherapy isn't used to treat vaginal cancer. 49. Answer: (B) Carcinoma in situ, no abnormalregional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis Rationale: TIS, N0, M0 denotes carcinoma in situ, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis. No evidence of primary tumor, no abnormal regional lymph nodes, and no evidence of distant metastasis is classified as T0, N0, M0. If 305 the tumor and regional lymph nodes can't be assessed and no evidence of metastasis exists,the lesion is classified as TX, NX, M0. A progressive increase in tumor size, no demonstrable metastasis of the regional lymph nodes, and ascending degrees of distant metastasis is classified as T1, T2, T3, orT4; N0; and M1, M2, or M3. 50. Answer: (D) "Keep the stoma moist." Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to keep the stoma moist, such as by applying athin layer of petroleum jelly around the edges,because a dry stoma may become irritated. The nurse should recommend placing a stomabib over the stoma to filter and warm air before it enters the stoma. The client should begin performing stoma care without assistance as soon as possible to gain independence in self-care activities. 51. Answer: (B) Lung cancer Rationale: Lung cancer is the most deadly typeof cancer in both women and men. Breast cancer ranks second in women, followed (in descending order) by colon and rectal cancer, pancreatic cancer, ovarian cancer, uterine cancer, lymphoma, leukemia, liver cancer, brain cancer, stomach cancer, and multiple myeloma. 52. Answer: (A) miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Rationale: Horner's syndrome, which occurs when a lung tumor invades the ribs and affects the sympathetic nerve ganglia, is characterized by miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the affected side of the face. Chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever are associated with pleural tumors. Arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of the armand hand muscles on the affected side suggest Pancoast's tumor, a lung tumor involving the first thoracic and eighth cervical nerves within the brachial plexus. Hoarseness in a client with lung cancer suggests that the tumor has extended to the recurrent laryngeal nerve; dysphagia suggests that the lung tumor is compressing the esophagus. 53. 53. Answer: (A) prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. Rationale: PSA stands for prostate-specific antigen, which is used to screen for prostate cancer. The other answers are incorrect. 54. Answer: (D) "Remain supine for the time specified by the physician." Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to remain supine for the time specified by the physician. Local anesthetics used in a subarachnoid blockdon't alter the gag reflex. No interactions between local anesthetics and food occur. Local anesthetics don't cause hematuria. 55. Answer: (C) Sigmoidoscopy Rationale: Used to visualize the lower GI tract,sigmoidoscopy and proctoscopy aid in the detection of two-thirds of all colorectal cancers. Stool Hematest detects blood, which is a sign of colorectal cancer; however, the test doesn't confirm the diagnosis. CEA may be elevated in colorectal cancer but isn't considered a confirming test. An abdominal CTscan is used to stage the presence of colorectal cancer. 56. Answer: (B) A fixed nodular mass withdimpling of the overlying skin Rationale: A fixed nodular mass with dimplingof the overlying skin is common during late stages of breast cancer. Many women have slightly asymmetrical breasts. Bloody nipple discharge is a sign of intraductal papilloma, a benign condition. Multiple firm, round, freelymovable masses that change with the menstrual cycle indicate fibrocystic breasts, abenign condition. 57. Answer: (A) Liver Rationale: The liver is one of the five most common cancer metastasis sites. The othersare the lymph nodes, lung, bone, and brain. The colon, reproductive tract, and WBCs areoccasional metastasis sites. 58. Answer: (D) The client wears a watch andwedding band. Rationale: During an MRI, the client should wear no metal objects, such as jewelry, because the strong magnetic field can pull on them, causing injury to the client and (if they fly off) to others. The client must lie still during the MRI but can talk to those performing the test by way of the microphoneinside the scanner tunnel. The client should hear thumping sounds, which are caused by the sound waves thumping on the magnetic field. 59. Answer: (C) The recommended daily allowance of calcium may be found in a widevariety of foods. Rationale: Premenopausal women require 1,000 mg of calcium per day. Postmenopausalwomen require 1,500 mg per day. It's often, though not always, possible to get the recommended daily requirement in the foodswe eat. Supplements are available but not always necessary. Osteoporosis doesn't showup on ordinary X-rays until 30% of the bone loss has occurred. Bone densitometry can detect bone loss of 3% or less. This test is sometimes recommended routinely for women over 35 who are at risk. Strenuous exercise won't cause fractures. 60. Answer: (C) Joint flexion of less than 50% Rationale: Arthroscopy is contraindicated in clients with joint flexion of less than 50% because of technical problems in inserting the instrument into the joint to see it clearly. Other contraindications for this procedure include skin and wound infections. Joint pain may be an indication, not a contraindication, for arthroscopy. Joint deformity and joint stiffness aren't contraindications for this procedure. 61. Answer: (D) Gouty arthritis Rationale: Gouty arthritis, a metabolic disease,is characterized by urate deposits and pain in the joints, especially those in the feet and legs. Urate deposits don't occur in septic or traumatic arthritis. Septic arthritis results frombacterial invasion of a joint and leads to inflammation of the synovial lining. Traumatic arthritis results from blunt trauma to a joint orligament. Intermittent arthritis is a rare, benign condition marked by regular, recurrentjoint effusions, especially in the knees. 62. Answer: (B) 30 ml/hou Rationale: An infusion prepared with 25,000 units of heparin in 500 ml of saline solution yields 50 units of heparin per milliliter of solution. The equation is set up as 50 units times X (the unknown quantity) equals 1,500units/hour, X equals 30 ml/hour. 63. Answer: (B) Loss of muscle contractiondecreasing venous return Rationale: In clients with hemiplegia or hemiparesis loss of muscle contraction decreases venous return and may cause swelling of the affected extremity. Contractures, or bony calcifications may occurwith a stroke, but don’t appear with swelling. DVT may develop in clients with a stroke but is more likely to occur in the lower extremities. A stroke isn’t linked to protein loss. 64. Answer: (B) It appears on the distalinterphalangeal joint Rationale: Heberden’s nodes appear on thedistal interphalageal joint on both men andwomen. Bouchard’s node appears on the dorsolateral aspect of the proximal interphalangeal joint. 65. Answer: (B) Osteoarthritis is a localized disease rheumatoid arthritis is systemic Rationale: Osteoarthritis is a localized disease, rheumatoid arthritis is systemic. Osteoarthritisisn’t gender-specific, but rheumatoid arthritis is. Clients have dislocations and subluxations in both disorders. 66. Answer: (C) The cane should be used on theunaffected side Rationale: A cane should be used on the unaffected side. A client with osteoarthritis should be encouraged to ambulate with a cane, walker, or other assistive device as needed; their use takes weight and stress offjoints. 67. Answer: (A) a. 9 U regular insulin and 21 U neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH). Rationale: A 70/30 insulin preparation is 70% NPH and 30% regular insulin. Therefore, a correct substitution requires mixing 21 U of NPH and 9 U of regular insulin. The other choices are incorrect dosages for the prescribed insulin. 68. Answer: (C) colchicines Rationale: A disease characterized by joint inflammation (especially in the great toe), gout is caused by urate crystal deposits in the joints. The physician prescribes colchicine to reduce these deposits and thus ease joint inflammation. Although aspirin is used to reduce joint inflammation and pain in clients with osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, itisn't indicated for gout because it has no effect on urate crystal formation. Furosemide,a diuretic, doesn't relieve gout. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse a negative calcium balance and relieve muscle cramps, not to treat gout. 69. Answer: (A) Adrenal cortex Rationale: Excessive secretion of aldosterone in the adrenal cortex is responsible for the client's hypertension. This hormone acts on the renal tubule, where it promotes reabsorption of sodium and excretion of potassium and hydrogen ions. The pancreas mainly secretes hormones involved in fuel metabolism. The adrenal medulla secretes thecatecholamines — epinephrine and 307 norepinephrine. The parathyroids secreteparathyroid hormone. 70. Answer: (C) They debride the wound and promote healing by secondary intention Rationale: For this client, wet-to-dry dressingsare most appropriate because they clean the foot ulcer by debriding exudate and necrotic tissue, thus promoting healing by secondary intention. Moist, transparent dressings contain exudate and provide a moist wound environment. Hydrocolloid dressings prevent the entrance of microorganisms and minimize wound discomfort. Dry sterile dressings protect the wound from mechanical trauma and promote healing. 71. Answer: (A) Hyperkalemia Rationale: In adrenal insufficiency, the client has hyperkalemia due to reduced aldosteronesecretion. BUN increases as the glomerular filtration rate is reduced. Hyponatremia is caused by reduced aldosterone secretion. Reduced cortisol secretion leads to impaired glyconeogenesis and a reduction of glycogen in the liver and muscle, causing hypoglycemia. 72. Answer: (C) Restricting fluids Rationale: To reduce water retention in aclient with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client's already heightened fluid load. 73. Answer: (D) glycosylated hemoglobin level. Rationale: Because some of the glucose in thebloodstream attaches to some of the hemoglobin and stays attached during the 120-day life span of red blood cells, glycosylated hemoglobin levels provide information about blood glucose levels duringthe previous 3 months. Fasting blood glucose and urine glucose levels only give information about glucose levels at the point in time whenthey were obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide information about blood glucose control over the past 2 to 3 weeks. 74. Answer: (C) 4:00 pm Rationale: NPH is an intermediate- acting insulin that peaks 8 to 12 hours after administration. Because the nurse administered NPH insulin at 7 a.m., the clientis at greatest risk for hypoglycemia from 3 p.m. to 7 p.m. 75. Answer: (A) Glucocorticoids and androgens Rationale: The adrenal glands have two divisions, the cortex and medulla. The cortex produces three types of hormones: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and androgens. The medulla produces catecholamines— epinephrine and norepinephrine. 76. Answer: (A) Hypocalcemia Rationale: Hypocalcemia may follow thyroid surgery if the parathyroid glands were removed accidentally. Signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia may be delayed for up to 7 daysafter surgery. Thyroid surgery doesn't directly cause serum sodium, potassium, or magnesium abnormalities. Hyponatremia mayoccur if the client inadvertently received too much fluid; however, this can happen to any surgical client receiving I.V. fluid therapy, not just one recovering from thyroid surgery. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia usually are associated with reduced renal excretion ofpotassium and magnesium, not thyroid surgery. 77. Answer: (D) Carcinoembryonic antigen level Rationale: In clients who smoke, the level of carcinoembryonic antigen is elevated. Therefore, it can't be used as a general indicator of cancer. However, it is helpful in monitoring cancer treatment because the level usually falls to normal within 1 month if treatment is successful. An elevated acid phosphatase level may indicate prostate cancer. An elevated alkaline phosphatase levelmay reflect bone metastasis. An elevated serum calcitonin level usually signals thyroid cancer. 78. Answer: (B) Dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallorRationale: Signs of iron- deficiency anemia include dyspnea, tachycardia, and pallor as well as fatigue, listlessness, irritability, and headache. Night sweats, weight loss, and diarrhea may signal acquired