NC EMT Practice Exam 1 Questions and answers Latest updates

NC EMT Practice Exam 1 Questions and answers Latest updates EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with patients who have which of the following? A. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) or AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome) B. Tuberculosis (TB) C. Open Wounds D. Hepatitis B - B. You are called to assist a 60-year-old female complaining of a severe headache. Upon entering the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first action? A. Check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs. C. Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance. D. Open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak. - C. The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest is called: A. Pulseless electrical activity B. Ventricular Fibrillation C. Ventricular Tachycardia D. Asystole - B. A non-trauma patient was pulseless and apneic. Assisted ventilation was attempted, but unsuccessful. If the head is repositioned and a repeat ventilation is unsuccessful, which of the following is the next most appropriate step? A. Check for an airway obstruction. B. Continue with chest compressions only. C. Attempt ventilations using an alternative method. D. Continue to reposition the head until assisted ventilations are successful. - A. During the management of a cardiac arrest, the AED gives a 'no shock advised' message. Which of the following conditions most likely prompted this message? A. The patient is in V tach. B. The patient is hypothermic. C. The patient is in V fib. D. The patient's rhythm is asystole. - D. ALS and EMS providers are preparing to hyperventilate a patient who has a suspected brainstem herniation. As capnography becomes available, what should be the target end-tidal carbon-dioxide level during hyperventilation? A. 20-25 mmHg B. 60-70 mmHg C. 30-35 mmHg D. 40-45 mmHg - C. Which of the following is the highest priority patient? A. 57-year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80. B. 40-year-old female with moderate pain from a leg injury. C. 75-year-old male who appears confused but responds to commands. D. 25-year-old female in labor with contractions six minutes apart. - A. Of the following, which body fluid has the most potential to transmit blood-borne diseases? A. Nasal discharge B. Vomitus C. Amniotic fluid D. Feces - C. Your patient is an 11-month-old female. How can you determine if she has a decreased mental status and is responsive to verbal stimuli? A. She will be upset when you take her from her mother's arms. B. She will be unable to tell you how old she is if you ask her. C. She will attempt to locate her parents' voices when they speak. D. She will try to pull away from a painful stimulus on her toe. - C. What is the best method to asses circulation in an infant? A. Palpate the carotid pulse. B. Palpate the brachial pulse. C. Palpate the radial pulse. D. Observe capillary refill time. - B. A 45-year-old male is experiencing chest discomfort. After placing him in his position of comfort, your next action should be to: A. Ventilate the patient with a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min. B. Ventilate the patient with the bag-valve mask at 15 L/min. C. Administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 15 L/min. D. Administer oxygen by the nasal cannula at 6 L/min. - C. Which patient should receive a rapid trauma survey to determine hidden injuries? A. Alert 2-year-old child in a car seat who was in a medium-speed crash. B. Alert 20-year-old male who fell ten feet and is complaining of leg pain. C. Alert 65-year-old female who fell in the bathtub and is complaining of wrist pain. D. Alert 11-year-old female who tripped while roller-skating and fell down three steps. - A. Which of the following is a sign of increased pressure in the circulatory system? A. Flat neck veins. B. Palpable carotid pulse. C. Distended jugular veins. D. Decreased radial pulse - C. An automated external defibrillator (AED) will shock which of the following rhythms? A. Sinus rhythm. B. Asystole. C. Ventricular fibrillation. D. Pulseless electrical activity - C. To assess the motor functions in the lower extremities of a responsive patient, you would: A. Ask the patient to bend his knees. B. Ask the patient to wiggle his toes. C. Carefully move the patient's leg. D. Touch the skin of the patient's foot. - B. Which patient can safely receive only a focused physical examination rather than a rapid trauma assessment? A. 10-year-old male with a deformed right lower leg who is responsive after falling off his bicycle. B. 20-year-old female who complains of severe pain in her ankle after stepping off a curb. C. 70-year-old male who complains of neck pain after a medium-speed car collision. D. 30-year-old male who is unresponsive but has only minor cuts on the extremities. - B. You are using the OPQRST acronym to assess a responsive medical patient. What question would you ask to assess the P component? A. What were you doing when the pain started? B. Can you describe the character of the pain for me? C. What makes the pain feel worse or better? D. On a scale of 1 to 10, how would you rte the pain? - C. What is the first step in the physical assessment of an unresponsive medical patient? A. Perform the initial assessment. B. Assess a complete set of vital signs. C. Position the patient to protect the airway. D. Obtain SAMPLE history from a family member. - A. Which patient needs a detailed physical examination? A. 48-year-old male with a history of heart disease who is complaining of chest pain. B. 35-year-old female who has been in a single-car collision and who briefly lost consciousness. C. 28-year-old full-term pregnant female whose water has broken and who is having contractions every two minutes. D. 53-year-old female with a history of smoking who is distressed and short of breath. - B. Where is a detailed physical exam typically performed? A. At the scene of the accident or injury. B. In the hospital emergency department. C. In the ambulance during transport. D. In the triage area of the trauma center. - C. The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to re-evaluate the patient's condition and to: A. Find any injuries missed during the initial assessment. B. Reassure the patient that you are still caring for him or her. C. Check the adequacy of each intervention performed. D. Protect the EMT against liability from malpractice. - C. Immediately after delivering a shock with an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest, you should: A. Check for a pulse. B. Check breathing and provide rescue breaths as necessary. C. Analyze with the AED and shock again if indicated. D. Do CPR. - D. You should apply an AED to: A. Adult patients experiencing chest discomfort. B. Adult patients with significant traumatic injuries. C. Adult patients without respirations or a pulse. D. Adult patients with low blood pressure. - C. In which of the following situations should you call for immediate assistance? A. You must care for two critical patient with gunshot wounds. B. Your patient is a 26-year-old female in active labor. C. Your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure. D. Your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine. - A. What is the structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during swallowing? A. larynx. B. Cricoid Cartilage. C. Epiglottis. D. Diaphragm - C. You are approached by a journalist and asked whether you transported Jane Doe to the emergency department. You should: A. Give the journalist any information he needs. B. Confirm that you did transport the patient, but not give any additional information. C. Inform the journalist that you cannot talk about any patients you care for. D. Direct the journalist to the emergency department staff. - C. Pink or bloody sputum is often seen in patients with: A) pulmonary edema. B) anaphylaxis. C) allergic reaction. D) flu - A. Which occurs during capillary-cellular exchange? A) Oxygen enters the capillaries as carbon dioxide enters the alveoli. B) Oxygen-poor blood from the capillaries passes into the alveoli. C) Body cells give up carbon dioxide and capillaries give up oxygen. D) Body cells obtain nourishment from the capillaries. - C. Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? A) warm, dry skin. B) no audible sounds. C) equal chest expansion. D) accessory muscle use. - D. A patient is complaining of facial paralysis on one side of his face with tearing, localized pain, and sensitivity may be suffering from the most common form of facial paralysis called: A) dystonia. B) muscular dystrophy. C) amytrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). D) Bell's Palsy - D. A gurgling sound heard with artificial ventilation is a sign that: A) the patient must be suctioned immediately. B) supplemental oxygen should be added to the gas-valve mask. C) the airway is most likely open, patent, and clear. D) the patient is trying to communicate with you. - A. The first step in artificial ventilation with a bag-valve mask unit in patients with no suspected trauma is to: A) position the mask correctly on the face using both hands. B) place the patient's head in a hyperextended, sniffing position. C) insert an airway adjunct and select the correct mask size. D) have an assistant squeeze the bag until the patient's chest rises. - B. You take a report from a first responder who describes a patient as postictal; based on this report, you would expect to find the patient: A) alert and oriented. B) confused. C) unresponsive. D) hallucinating. - B. When suctioning a patient, how far should you insert a soft suction catheter? A) as far as you can see. B) as far as the base of the tongue. C) until resistance is encountered. D) past the vocal cords. - B. What is the correct procedure for a patient who has secretions or emesis that suctioning cannot easily remove A) Insert an oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airway immediately. B) Suction for 15 seconds, ventilate for two minutes, and then repeat. C) Logroll the patient and clear the oropharynx and nasopharynx.