Defense Acquisition University ACQ 101/ACQ101 all module tests.

Defense Acquisition University ACQ 101/ACQ101 all module tests Fall 2022 Questions and correct Answers. Defense Acquisition University; ACQ 101 all module Exams 1) A system can be defined as: All elements (e.g., hardware, software, logistics support, personnel) needed to assist the Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war The deployment and fielding processes used by the Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war Embedded software that controls devices used to assist Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war Hardware devices used to assist the Department of Defense (DoD) to conduct its mission of deterring or winning war 2) In order to be successful in acquisition management, which of the following PERFORMANCE risk factors need to be addressed Use of new material or processes Program objectives, processes, and funding Staffing, logistics, and supplies User requirements, budget, and timelines 3) Which document establishes a simplified and flexible management system for translating joint capability needs and technological opportunities? DoDI 5000.02, Operation of the Defense Acquisition System DoDD 5000.01, The Defense Acquisition System Executive Order 13693 Defense Acquisition Guidebook (DAG) 4) The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) requires the Department of Defense (DoD) to: Assess all acquisition programs, regardless of size, to determine their effect on the environment Assess those programs over $10 million to determine their effect on the environment Assess those programs that involve the use of hazardous chemicals Assess those programs that are likely to have a negative impact on the environment 5) Select the Department of Defense's (DoD's) decision-support system described as: "DoD's primary resource allocation process that is calendar-driven." Planning, Programming, Budgeting and Execution (PPBE) Risk Assessment and Management System (RAM) Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) Defense Acquisition Management System (DAS) 1) DoDI 5000.02 specifies the characteristics for acquisition categories. False True 2) Which of the following institutions issues directives and regulations and formulates, directs, and executes national security policy The Executive Branch Congress Industry 3) Who is the Defense Acquisition Executive? Under Secretary of Defense (Acquisition, Technology, and Logistics) (USD[AT&L]) Assistant Secretary of Defense (Networks and Information Integration) (ASD (NII)) Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) Under Secretary of Defense for Policy (USD[P]) 4) Which of the following Acquisition Categories (ACATs) are established for the Navy and Marines only? Acquisition Category (ACAT) IV Acquisition Category (ACAT) I Acquisition Category (ACAT) II Acquisition Category (ACAT) III 1) Which of the following did the adoption of Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) allow DoD to do Shift from a threat-based approach to identifying warfighter requirements to a capabilities-based approach Shift from a capabilities-based approach to identifying warfighter requirements to a threat-based approach Reduce spending on throughout the life cycle of most programs Comply with Presidential directives regarding environmental hazards and use of renewable energy sources 2) Which of the following supports the Joint Requirements Oversight Council (JROC) by integrating Stakeholder views in concept development, capabilities planning, and force development? Functional Capabilities Board (FCB) Joint Capabilities Board (JCB) Defense Acquisition Board Appropriate Service Chief 3) What are Requirements Managers responsible for providing? Identifying operational performance requirements Strategic guidance Feedback from the field Estimating cost and obtaining funding 4) Which document is developed next if the Capabilities-Based Assessment (CBA) recommends a materiel solution Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) Doctrine, Organization, Training, Materiel, Leadership, Personnel, Facilities, and Policy (DOTMLPF-P) Change Recommendation (DCR) Capabilities Development Document (CDD) Capability Production Document (CPD) 5) As the program nears the end of development, the user refines the Capability Development Document (CDD) into which document? Capability Production Document (CPD) Statement of Objectives (SOO) Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) 6) Which of the following does not apply to the formal definition of interoperability? Ability of systems, units, or forces to communicate via voice when enemy countermeasures are present Ability of systems, units, or forces to provide and accept data, information, materiel, and services from each other Information or services can be exchanged directly and satisfactorily between communications-electronics equipment Ability of systems, units, or forces to interoperate with other U.S. Forces and coalition partners effectively 1) DoD defines and validates requirements through the Joint Capabilities Integration and Development System (JCIDS) and develops technology, produces weapons systems, and provides logistics support through the Defense Acquisition System True False 2) The key activity during the Materiel Solution Analysis Phase (MSA) is to analyze promising technologies to determine which one is best suited to meet the validated requirement False True 3) What is the purpose of an Acquisition Strategy (AS)? To guide execution from initiation through re-procurement of systems, subsystems, components, spares, and services beyond the initial production contract award and during post-production support To conduct analysis and other activities needed to choose the concept for the product and to begin translating validated capability gaps into system specific requirements To provide input into the production of the Initial Capabilities Document (ICD) and Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) To determine the ability of systems, units, or forces to provide and accept data, information, materiel, and services from each other 4) The purpose of the Technology Maturation and Risk Reduction (TMRR) phase is to reduce technology risk through competitive prototyping of critical technologies False True 5) Which is used to create the Acquisition Program Baseline (APB Defense Acquisition Management Information Retrieval (DAMIR) Defense Acquisition Executive Summary Report (DAES) Defense Priorities and Allocations System (DPAS) Diminishing Manufacturing Sources and Material Shortages (DMSMS) 6) Which of the following is an example of information that can be considered by the Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) at the Development Request for Proposal Release Decision (DRFPRD)? Validated and approved Capability Development Document (CDD) Contractor responses to Request for Proposal (RFP) Validated and approved Capabilities-Based Assessment (CBA) Analysis of Alternatives (AoA) 7) What authorizes entry into the Production and Deployment phase Milestone C decision Milestone A decision Milestone B decision Completion of a validated and approved Capability Development Document (CDD) 8) The Operations and Support Phase begins after the production or deployment decision and is based on which Milestone Decision Authority (MDA) approved document? Life Cycle Sustainment Plan (LCSP) Acquisition Strategy (AS) System Disposal Plan (SDP) 1) Which of the following is a key characteristic of Program-Level Integrated Project Teams (IPTs)? They focus on program execution They focus on determining program status They focus on strategic guidance They focus on program assessment 2) On which team developmental stage are attempts to achieve harmony by avoiding conflict and to be more accepting of all team members and their ideas typical behaviors? Norming Storming Performing Adjourning 3) What tool do you use to establish need, purpose, and scope for a team? Charter Meeting minutes Introductory session Team building exercises 4) What are the two principal considerations of team decision-making Consensus and ethical decision making Unanimity and ethical decision-making Consensus and common sense decision-making 1) The principal document that describes a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the MIL-STD- 881C (DoD Standard Practice Work Breakdown Structures for Defense Materiel Items). How many system level formats are provided in the MIL-STD-881C 11 10 7 14 2) DoD Components and contractors use a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) to establish a foundation for: Developing program and technical plans through the systems engineering process Approval and release of drawings into the system architecture Establishing production processes and procedures Generating required documentation for funding requirements an approval on all DoD defense system acquisitions 3) Contractors use the Contract Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) to define work packages that are the building blocks for program management and cost reporting. False True 4) Who controls and maintains the Program Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)? Program Management Office (PMO) Program Manager (PM) Contractor Procuring Contacting Officer 5) What is the goal of a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) in relation to the Acquisition Life Cycle? To define the logical relationship among all program elements to a specified level To ensure the government receives the best price for all acquisition programs To monitor contractor work and expenditures at the lowest level To effective plan for life cycle sustainment and disposal costs 1) Select the term that best fits the following definition: "The legal reservation of funds to make a future payment of money." Obligation Appropriation Commitment Expenditure 2) What is the purpose of a Life Cycle Cost Estimate (LCCE)? Acquire funding for a system throughout its lifespan Provide funding for contract actions Allow audits of system costs Determine the effectiveness of the system 3) What cost estimating technique would be indicated for the following situation? The Program is going to a MS C Decision in a year. The estimate is due several months to a year from now. The estimate needs to be very accurate and objective. Detailed labor and material estimates are available. The design effort has completed the Work Breakdown Structure definition and the sum of the costs determines the total system cost. Engineering Analogy Parametric Actual Costs 4) Which of the following appropriations categories provides funds for programs that have been approved for production? Procurement MILCON Operation and Maintenance MILPERS 5) What funding policy applies to procurement appropriations? Full Funding Incremental Funding Annual Funding Deficit Funding 6) Each phase of the Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) process answers a different question. Which of the following questions does the Programming Phase answer? How much defense can we afford? Who will support the system after it is fielded? How well are we executing? What are the critical defense needs? 7) Which enactment process activity provides permission for a Federal program or activity to begin or continue from year to year, but does not provide Budget Authority to fund the program or activity? Authorization Bill Budget Resolution Appropriations Bill National Military Strategy 8) After the Congress passes the DoD Appropriations Bill and the President signs it, the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) distributes the Budget Authority to the DoD. What is this distribution called? Apportionment Authorization Aggregation Acknowledgment 9) What is the name of the law that requires funds appropriated by Congress to be used only for the programs and purposes for which the appropriation is made? Misappropriation Act Authorization Law Anti-Deficiency Act Bone Fide Need Rule 10) What budgeting review for the next fiscal year occurs while one FY budget is being executed and the next fiscal year is being enacted? Planning, Programming, Budgeting, and Execution (PPBE) review Congressional Committee review Office of Management and Budget (OMB) review Government Accounting Office (GAO) review 11) What does reprogramming permit the Department of Defense (DoD) to do with budget authority (BA)? Use BA for purposes other than those originally intended by Congress Obtain additional BA from Congress to cover insufficient funds Carry over BA that are about to expire into the next fiscal year Transfer BA designated for one Federal agency into a program budget 12) Who can approve the realignment of funds between activities that are below the level of control for that appropriation category and that does not require a reprogramming action Program Manager Contractor Congress DoD Comptroller 1) What cost estimating technique would be indicated for the following situation? The program is early in the Engineering and Manufacturing Development phase. An estimate is needed quickly to support a "what-if" discussion. A moderate degree of subjectivity can be accommodated. A good database exists with information on many similar systems and their performance characteristics Parametric Analogy Actual Costs Engineering 1) A Contract is a legal instrument that defines the rights and responsibilities of Each party The supplier (contractor/offeror). The purchaser (government/acceptance). 2) Which of the following terms must an offer include? Price, quantity, quality, and delivery requirements Negotiable terms and conditions Written statement of pending litigation Contractor's identification information 3) The type of contracting officer who handles the procurement from the pre-solicitation phase through contract award is the: Procuring Contracting Officer (PCO) Administrative Contracting Officer (ACO) Termination Contracting Officer (TCO) Contracting Officers Technical Representative (COTR) 4) Which of the following is NOT a method of contracting? (Select all that apply) Unilateral contract action Sole Source Sealed Bidding Competition 5) Who oversees the source selection process and selects the source whose proposal is the best value? Source Selection Authority (SSA) Contracting Officer (CO) Source Selection Advisory Council (SSAC) Source Selection Evaluation Board (SSEB) 6) What is one purpose of contract administration Avoiding or eliminating overlap and duplication of Government contract administration effort Preparing and distributing the Contract Data Requirements List (CDRL) Ensuring the right contractor is selected Protecting the contractor interests 1) One purpose of Earned Value Management (EVM) is to: Report performance information and evaluate progress for system acquisitions Compare the work accomplished to other programs of the same scope Report cash flow and expenses for the program Establish expenditure ceilings and track costs 2) In which document are the 32 Earned Value Management (EVM) system guidelines defined? American National Standards Institute/Electronics Industries Alliance Standard 748-1998 (ANSI/EIA-748) Performance Management Baseline Government Performance and Results Act (GPRA) of 1993 The Government program manager's acquisition strategy 3) Earned Value Management (EVM) implementation ensures the PM is provided which of the following contractor information? (Select all that apply) Outcome Schedule Cost Performance 4) Which Earned Value Management (EVM) office is responsible for recognition and acceptance of the contractor's EVM system? Contract Management Office (CMO) Earned Value Management (EVM) system focal point Contractor Program Management Office (PMO) 5) Which statement best describes the Integrated Baseline Review (IBR)? Is a joint risk assessment of the Earned Value Management (EVM) Performance Measurement Baseline conducted by the Government PM and contractor Provides Defense Contract Management Agency (DCMA) the opportunity to validate the Earned Value Management (EVM) system if the contract exceeds $50 million dollars Approves the Earned Value Management (EVM) surveillance process within the Field Audit Office Is required to be jointly conducted by the government and contractor program managers within 9 months of contract award 6) Which of the following is a function of Earned Value Management (EVM)? Report performance goals Order material Identify Program Managers (PMs) and contractors Hire technicians 7) Which of the following weapon systems first used the Earned Value Management (EVM) tool to manage their complex systems? Minuteman ICBM Nike-X Sergeant Guided Missile System Pershing Guided Missile System 8) Which of the following does the Contract Funds Status Report provide to the Program Managers (PMs)? Projected excess funding in contracts Exact termination costs Changes in contract language Cost, schedule, and performance data 9) Which of the following does the Integrated Program Management Report (IPMR) provide? Performance data Inventory data Procurement data Materiel data 10) The IBR is a tool that should be used as necessary throughout the life of the contract True False 11) Which of the following is also known as Planned Value Budgeted Cost for Work Scheduled (BCWS) Budget at Completion (BAC) Actual Cost of Work Performed (ACWP) Budgeted Cost for Work Performed (BCWP) 12) Which of the following is an Earned Value Management (EVM) performance metric used to represent cost efficiency? Cost Performance Index (CPI) Contractor Performance Report (CPR) Contract Funds Status Report (CFSR) Level of Effort (LOE) 13) What is the difference between the Budget at Completion (BAC) and the Estimate at completion (EAC)? Variance at Completion (VAC) Cost Variance (CV) Schedule Variance (SV) Schedule Performance Index (SPI) 14) The Government's Earned Value Estimate at Completion (EAC) formula is based on the amount of money already spent on the contract plus which other amount of money? The amount it will take to complete the project The amount it will take to change the project The amount it will take to extend the project The amount it will take to implement the project 15) Which of the following is an Earned Value Management (EVM) performance metric used to represent cost efficiency and is primarily used as an element of the Estimate at Completion (EAC) equation? Cost Performance Index (CPI) Schedule Performance Index (SPI) Variance at Completion (VAC) Schedule Variance (SV) 1) Which Joint Capabilities Technology Demonstrations (JCTD) developed and will transition a deployable, integrated system to provide essential services in the immediate aftermath of a crisis?? R2TD PGSS ACAT PEAK 2) What is an emerging national security challenge due to terrorism and insurgency? Cyber operations Computer hackers Number of casualties Political policies 3) Successful Science and Technology (S&T) transitioning requires active participation between whom? The R&D Community and DoD DoD and Industry The R&D Community and the Program Office Academia and the Program Office 4) The objective of the Science and Technology program is to: Supply the commercial sector with new inventions to maintain a favorable trade balance Create or exploit scientific breakthroughs and guard against technological surprise Focus appropriate scientific discoveries on needy support functions and use advance concepts in new weapons system development Aid in the development of components and subsystems applicable to a variety of systems 5) During which portion of the life cycle are the benefits and risks of the candidate technologies reviewed? Materiel Solution Analysis and Technology Maturation & Risk Reduction Engineering and Manufacturing Development Mission Need Determination Production and Deployment 1) Which of the following best describes Test and Evaluation (T&E Ensures that the system meets the capability needs. Provide performance data so that decision makers can determine the cost-benefits of the system Provide the Office of the Secretary of Defense with crucial information to use in budget justifications Allow decision makers to clearly establish production quantity tradeoffs 2) Select the type of Operational Test and Evaluation that is conducted after the Full-Rate Production Decision: Follow-On Operational Test and Evaluation Initial Operational Test and Evaluation Early Operational Assessment Operational Assessment 3) The Test and Evaluation Master Plan (TEMP) must be developed prior to which of the following? Milestone A and updated before each subsequent review Milestone B and updated before each subsequent review Milestone C and updated before Full Rate Production 4) Test and Evaluation (T&E) is used to identify technical risk, verify performance, and validate system utility throughout the defense system acquisition life cycle. True False 1) Which of the following statements best describe life cycle logistics Logistics is an inherent part of the system's design, development, testing, and production The life cycle function terminates at disposal Sustainability is the capacity of the organization to prevail in the face of potential destruction Logistics is a sustainment planning function that must be part of every system beginning at Milestone C 2) Which of the following are strategies of life cycle sustainment Comprehensive and early planning, development, and implementation Large footprint to ensure optimum material availability Contractor logistic support goals Bulk sustainment item buys 3) Why is designing for sustainment a critical function for military equipment The average age of our military equipment is expected to be 54 years Initial investment is exorbitant Operating costs rise exponentially Disposal of military equipment is costly 4) DoD Product Support Business Model (PSBM) is a one-time process to optimally support the needs and requirements of the Warfighter in an effective and affordable manner. False True 5) Logisticians and engineers who perform sustainment analyses should have a basic understanding of Operations, System missions and profiles and the system capabilities False True 6) If the total elapsed time (in clock hours) for corrective maintenance is 1,200 hours and there are 60 maintenance actions completed in that timeframe, what is the Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)? 20 hours 30 hours 40 hours 10 hours 7) What is the importance of process efficiency The ability to transform inputs into outputs at the lowest cost The ability to execute functions in the operational environment The ability to control warehousing processes The ability to forecast resource demands 8) What is the primary objective of the Engineering and Manufacturing Development (EMD) phase? Develop the product baseline, verify it meets the system functional and allocated baselines, and transform the preliminary design into a producible design within schedule and cost constraints Refine the performance-based support concept and strategy Identify potential support providers Reduce the logistics footprint 9) Which of the following Integrated Product Support (IPS) Element involves the identification, review, assessment, and resolution of deficiencies throughout a system's life cycle Sustaining Engineering Product Support Management Maintenance Planning and Management Manpower and Personnel 1) Traditional/Transactional Based Logistics support organizations through Product Support Arrangements (PSAs True False 2) Which of the following statements satisfy the SMART test? (Select all that apply) Specific: clear and focused to avoid misinterpretation, specifying the allowable range or threshold Attainable: achievable, reasonable, cost-effective and credible under expected CONOPS Timely: doable within the given time frame Reach: Accomplish the goal 3) Best practice Performance Based Logistics (PBL) contracts often use some combination of "carrots and sticks" strategies that are tightly aligned, promoting behaviors and outcomes that benefit both the customer and supplier True False 4) Which of the following is a financial incentive that promotes behaviors and outcomes that benefit both the customer and supplier? Adding or reducing fee based on metric performance Award fee earned based on subjective assessment Short term contracts to lock in cash flow Long term contracts to minimize competition 1) What is the main purpose of any programming language To generate code that tells a computer system what outputs to produce given certain inputs To establish voice communications with hardware-intensive systems To communicate a decision on program continuation to the Defense Acquisition Board (DAB) To ensure only qualified programmers are used to develop code 2) Which of the following is a generic classification of a DoD Software-Intensive System Defense Business System External Information system Embedded Business System Network Information System 3) What is a key thrust of the Clinger-Cohen Act To require greater accountability for systems improvements achieved through the use of Information Technology (IT) To assist Congress in monitoring the budget process from obligation to execution To expand the pool of qualified software development contractors To make sure that the warfighter has access to technology during off-hours 4) To address interoperability concerns, the DoD has defined an interrelated set of viewpoints that includes , Systems and other Technical Viewpoints Operational Strategic Tactical Functional 5) In which paradigm, should special emphasis be placed on the selection of the items to be included in the last increment Incremental Development Paradigm Waterfall Development Paradigm Spiral Development Paradigm 6) The Software Development Process is concurrent with the Systems Engineering Process. False True 7) Select the answer that is NOT an example of a Quality Measure Software Size Supportability Correctness Modularity 8) Post-Deployment Software Support (PDSS) activities such as correcting problems, providing new functions, and adapting the product to a modified environment, represent what percent of software system life cycle costs The greatest percentage Smallest percentage Approximately half An insignificant percentage 1) Which of the following are factors that can result in increased costs and production delays? (Select all that apply Late design releases Lack of production planning Changing design requirements Life cycle sustainment planning activities 2) The impact of design instability is particularly significant during The fabrication of parts The initial operational capability period The preparation for production The planning for production 3) What are factors that can result in increased costs and production delays in the Systems Engineering Process? (Select all that apply Lack of production planning Changing design requirements Late design release Stable manufacturing processes 4) Four of five of the 5Ms include manpower, measurement, method, and material. What is the missing fifth M Machinery Means Mechanisms Money 5) Which of the following is the number-one driver of labor costs Assembly Fabrication Process Testing Multiuse 6) The contractor is allowed the flexibility to define and use a preferred quality management process that meets program objectives True False 1) The process for a weapons system deployment may take from 5 to more than 20 years to develop and field. The facilities infrastructure support element generally takes between: 1 to 3 Years 10 to 15 Years 2 to 4 Years 5 to 7 Years 2) Facilities Engineering is a multi-disciplinary acquisition process that involves all facets of life cycle management from planning through disposal. True False 3) Facilities engineers throughout the DoD execute billions of dollars of new construction, modernization/renovation, and repair projects each year. True False 4) Which of the following areas of expertise must you have to participate in Facilities Engineering Planning? Demographic analysis Structural appraisal Encroachment planning Cartography 5) Why does the Military Housing Privatization Initiative (MHPI) allow the Department of Defense (DoD) to work with the private sector to build and renovate military housing? The private sector has a continuous flow of capital The private sector has a pollution prevention program Commercial construction is faster than military construction 6) Which of the following does contingency engineering require to ensure the safety and readiness of personnel, installations, and equipment? Facilities Engineering Planning, Real Estate, Engineering and Construction, Environmental Engineering, and Base Operations Support Planning, Rapid Response, and Special Procedures Regional Planning, Utilities, Anti-terrorism and Force Protection, Environmental Laws, Housing, and Natural and Cultural Resources Planning, Design, Construction, Facilities Sustainment, and Disposal 7) Utilities, water, and power are essential infrastructure systems that support all missions and weapon systems. The infrastructure systems need to provide the required utility services with acceptable levels of: (Select all that apply). Quantity Quality Availability Reliability 1) In order to achieve better business decisions, it is important for Government acquisition personnel to know how industry engages to win government contracts True False 2) Commercial companies doing business with DoD tend to Bid on Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP) contracts with payment due upon delivery of the items Negotiate lower prices for their goods with DoD than with their commercial customers Provide a cost breakout of the elements of their price Start out as a sub-contractor to a larger company to prove their capabilities 3) Which of the following statements about public companies is true Must produce annual reports and other documents that the IPT can read to gain knowledge of how corporate management decisions are made Are driven by cash flow Are not subject to the regulatory environment of the SEC or to statutory requirements Cannot raise investment funds by selling stock 4) Select the Macro environment ECONOMIC factor that can change the way an organization plans for the future and operates in the present Market boom and recession Depreciation Tariffs and Trade agreements Government regulations 5) There was an intensive period of concentration between 1993 and 1998 when a number of large-scale mergers and acquisitions occurred. What are the remaining firms doing today to address the uncertainty in the market? All of the answers are correct Developing strategic alliances Placing emphasis on branding Planning to leverage defense and commercial opportunities The Government tends to change shape slowly, while industry is more agile in making structural change to gain efficiency or better align with current work. True False 1) Which of the following manages the implementation of National Intelligence at the DEPARTMENTAL level? Coast Guard Intelligence Director of National Intelligence National Security Agency Defense Intelligence Agency 2) VOLT is Validated Online Lifecycle Threat Validated Online Training Verified Online Logistics Table Verified Online Lifecycle Threat 3) The reference that covers Counterintelligence is . DoDD 5240.02 DoDI 8500.01 DIAI 5000.002 DoDI 5000.02 4) Program Protection PLANs are required by and . DoDI 5200.39 and DoDI 5000.02 DIAI 5000.002 and DoDD 5240.02 DoDD 5240.02 and DoDI 5240.10 DoDI 5000.02 and DoDI 8500.01 5) Which of the following are Service Elements under USCYBERCOM? Select all that apply. USN - Fleet Cyber Command (FLTCYBERCOM) USA - Army Forces Cyber Command (ARFORCYBER) USMC - Marine Forces Cyber Command (MARFORCYBER) USCG - Coast Guard Cyber Command (CGCYBER) NSA- National Security Agency USAF - U.S. Air Force, 24th Air Force 6) Which of the following organizations provides centralized management of DoD CI activities? Director, Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA) Under Secretary of Defense for Intelligence (OUSD (I)) Director, National Security Agency/Chief, Central Security Service (DIRNSA/CHCSS) Director, Defense Threat Reduction Agency (DTRA) 7) The Program Protection Plan (PPP) is the milestone acquisition document that describes the plan, responsibilities, and decisions for all program protection activities False True 8) Cybersecurity - Prevention of damage to, protection of, and restoration of computers, electronic communications systems, electronic communications services, wire communication, and electronic communication, including information contained therein, to ensure its availability, integrity, , confidentiality, and nonrepudiation. authentication readiness cohesiveness usability 9) When an acquisition program containing Critical Program Information (CPI) is initiated, the should request a counterintelligence (CI) analysis of CPI from the servicing CI organization. Program Manager (PM) Contracting Officer Senior Intelligence Office (SIO) Program Executive Officer (PEO) 10) Select the reference that requires program managers to submit a cybersecurity strategy DoDI 5000.02 DoDI 8500.01 DoDD 5240.02 DoDI 8510.01 11) Counterintelligence (CI) organizations need information that describes the CPI and its projected use to determine the foreign collection threat to an acquisition program and subsequently the . program acquisition strategy test and evaluation plan Program Procurement Plan Life Cycle Sustainment Plan & Strategy 12) While the definitions for Information Assurance (IA) and cybersecurity are very similar, the differences in these definitions give us a hint of what is trying to be communicated in the official name change. The first focus of the new cybersecurity definition is that of . Prevention Accommodation Mitigation Reaction 1) The overall efforts of the Intelligence Community (IC) are administered by the Office of the Director of National Intelligence (ODNI), which is led by the Director of National Intelligence (DNI). True False