ARRT Radiology Exam 3 Test Bank
Comprehensive Practice Questions & Study
Guide
This comprehensive Test Bank is designed for students and professionals preparing for the ARRT
Radiology Exam. It provides chapter-aligned practice questions, detailed answer explanations, and
review materials to help reinforce radiology concepts, imaging procedures, and exam strategies.
Key features:
• Full set of multiple-choice and review-style questions
• Detailed answer explanations and rationales
• Chapter-based organization for targeted study
• Ideal for exam preparation, self-assessment, and practical application
A valuable resource for mastering radiology principles and confidently succeeding in the ARRT
certification exam.
,Explanations:
Q: Edge enhancement, image stitching, image inversion, rotation, and reversal are all terms known as:
A: Windowing/special effects
Rationale: These are digital imaging techniques used to manipulate the appearance of radiographic
images. "Windowing" refers to adjusting the image's brightness and contrast, while "special effects"
such as image stitching and rotation are used to improve or alter the view for better diagnostic clarity.
ARRT Radiology Exam 3 Test Bank /Comprehensive Practice Questions & Study Guide
Q: Windowing "special effect image stitching is useful in:
A: Scoliosis examinations
Rationale: Image stitching is particularly useful in scoliosis exams as it allows radiologists to merge
multiple images of the spine, providing a complete and clear image for better diagnosis.
Q: The use of the PA projection during a juvenile scoliosis exam results in:
A: Lower entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, significantly reducing the dose to the
breast.
Rationale: The PA (Posteroanterior) projection reduces radiation exposure to sensitive areas such as the
breast, making it especially useful for pediatric scoliosis patients.
Q: Initial images for PA scoliosis and female pelvic exams should not be shielded (True or False):
A: True
Rationale: Shielding is not typically used in these initial projections as it could obscure important
diagnostic areas, which are vital for accurate imaging of the spine or pelvic region.
Q: The T5 sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the:
A: T2-3 interspace
Rationale: The sternal angle, a palpable anatomical landmark, is aligned with the T2-T3 interspace,
which helps with accurate positioning during thoracic spine imaging.
Q: The manubrial (suprasternal) notch is at approximately the same level as the:
A: T2-3 interspace
Rationale: The suprasternal notch is another key reference point in radiography, often aligned with the
T2-T3 interspace to guide thoracic imaging.
,Q: The costal margin is about the same level as:
A: L3
Rationale: The costal margin, the lower edge of the rib cage, generally aligns with the L3 vertebra and is
used as a guide during abdominal radiographs.
Q: The calcaneus (os calcis) serves as the attachment for the _________ and articulates anteriorly with
the ______.
A: Achilles tendon, cuboid bone
Rationale: The calcaneus is the attachment site for the Achilles tendon and articulates with the cuboid
bone in the foot, playing a key role in foot movement and stability.
Q: The navicular articulates laterally with the:
A: Cuboid
Rationale: The navicular bone in the foot articulates with the cuboid, forming part of the complex
structure of the foot and allowing for movement.
Q: The fifth (most lateral) metatarsal projects laterally and presents a large tuberosity at its base,
making it very susceptible to:
A: Fracture
Rationale: The large tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal makes it vulnerable to fractures,
particularly from trauma or repetitive stress.
Q: The thoracic intervertebral (disk) spaces are demonstrated in the AP and lateral projections,
although they are probably best demonstrated in the:
A: Lateral position
Rationale: The lateral projection provides the clearest view of the intervertebral spaces in the thoracic
spine, making it the best choice for evaluating these spaces.
Q: The thoracic apophyseal joints are ______ to the MSP and are demonstrated in a steep _______
position.
A: 90° to the MSP, oblique position (70°)
Rationale: The thoracic apophyseal joints are visualized at a steep oblique angle, about 70° to the
midsagittal plane (MSP), allowing for optimal imaging of the joint spaces.
, Q: The thoracic intervertebral foramina are _______ to the MSP and are demonstrated in the
________ position.
A: 90° to the MSP, lateral position
Rationale: The thoracic intervertebral foramina are best visualized in a lateral projection, which is
perpendicular to the midsagittal plane.
Q: Norepinephrine functions to raise the blood pressure, whereas nitroglycerin functions as a
_________, relaxing the walls of blood vessels and increasing circulation:
A: Vasodilator
Rationale: Norepinephrine constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure, while nitroglycerin relaxes
the blood vessel walls, helping to improve blood circulation and lower blood pressure.
Q: Heparin is used to decrease coagulation and often used in the cardiovascular imaging suite to
inhibit coagulation on catheters. What is the term used to prevent clotting of blood?
A: Anticoagulant
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used in
cardiovascular procedures, including catheterization, to reduce the risk of clot formation.
Q: Inflammation of the parotid gland is known as:
A: Parotitis
Rationale: Parotitis refers to the inflammation of the parotid glands, which are the largest salivary
glands located near the ears. This condition is often caused by infection.
Q: The ______ will have difficulty speaking as a result of redirection of the air past the vocal cords:
A: Tracheostomy patient
Rationale: Tracheostomy patients may have difficulty speaking because the tracheostomy tube bypasses
the vocal cords, which are essential for speech production.
Q: Gurgling or rattling sounds coming from the trachea indicate an excess accumulation of secretions,
requiring suction with ______ catheters:
A: Sterile
Rationale: Gurgling or rattling sounds indicate that the trachea is filled with excess secretions, which
require sterile suctioning to maintain airway clearance and prevent infection.
Comprehensive Practice Questions & Study
Guide
This comprehensive Test Bank is designed for students and professionals preparing for the ARRT
Radiology Exam. It provides chapter-aligned practice questions, detailed answer explanations, and
review materials to help reinforce radiology concepts, imaging procedures, and exam strategies.
Key features:
• Full set of multiple-choice and review-style questions
• Detailed answer explanations and rationales
• Chapter-based organization for targeted study
• Ideal for exam preparation, self-assessment, and practical application
A valuable resource for mastering radiology principles and confidently succeeding in the ARRT
certification exam.
,Explanations:
Q: Edge enhancement, image stitching, image inversion, rotation, and reversal are all terms known as:
A: Windowing/special effects
Rationale: These are digital imaging techniques used to manipulate the appearance of radiographic
images. "Windowing" refers to adjusting the image's brightness and contrast, while "special effects"
such as image stitching and rotation are used to improve or alter the view for better diagnostic clarity.
ARRT Radiology Exam 3 Test Bank /Comprehensive Practice Questions & Study Guide
Q: Windowing "special effect image stitching is useful in:
A: Scoliosis examinations
Rationale: Image stitching is particularly useful in scoliosis exams as it allows radiologists to merge
multiple images of the spine, providing a complete and clear image for better diagnosis.
Q: The use of the PA projection during a juvenile scoliosis exam results in:
A: Lower entrance exposure dose to the anterior body surface, significantly reducing the dose to the
breast.
Rationale: The PA (Posteroanterior) projection reduces radiation exposure to sensitive areas such as the
breast, making it especially useful for pediatric scoliosis patients.
Q: Initial images for PA scoliosis and female pelvic exams should not be shielded (True or False):
A: True
Rationale: Shielding is not typically used in these initial projections as it could obscure important
diagnostic areas, which are vital for accurate imaging of the spine or pelvic region.
Q: The T5 sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the:
A: T2-3 interspace
Rationale: The sternal angle, a palpable anatomical landmark, is aligned with the T2-T3 interspace,
which helps with accurate positioning during thoracic spine imaging.
Q: The manubrial (suprasternal) notch is at approximately the same level as the:
A: T2-3 interspace
Rationale: The suprasternal notch is another key reference point in radiography, often aligned with the
T2-T3 interspace to guide thoracic imaging.
,Q: The costal margin is about the same level as:
A: L3
Rationale: The costal margin, the lower edge of the rib cage, generally aligns with the L3 vertebra and is
used as a guide during abdominal radiographs.
Q: The calcaneus (os calcis) serves as the attachment for the _________ and articulates anteriorly with
the ______.
A: Achilles tendon, cuboid bone
Rationale: The calcaneus is the attachment site for the Achilles tendon and articulates with the cuboid
bone in the foot, playing a key role in foot movement and stability.
Q: The navicular articulates laterally with the:
A: Cuboid
Rationale: The navicular bone in the foot articulates with the cuboid, forming part of the complex
structure of the foot and allowing for movement.
Q: The fifth (most lateral) metatarsal projects laterally and presents a large tuberosity at its base,
making it very susceptible to:
A: Fracture
Rationale: The large tuberosity at the base of the fifth metatarsal makes it vulnerable to fractures,
particularly from trauma or repetitive stress.
Q: The thoracic intervertebral (disk) spaces are demonstrated in the AP and lateral projections,
although they are probably best demonstrated in the:
A: Lateral position
Rationale: The lateral projection provides the clearest view of the intervertebral spaces in the thoracic
spine, making it the best choice for evaluating these spaces.
Q: The thoracic apophyseal joints are ______ to the MSP and are demonstrated in a steep _______
position.
A: 90° to the MSP, oblique position (70°)
Rationale: The thoracic apophyseal joints are visualized at a steep oblique angle, about 70° to the
midsagittal plane (MSP), allowing for optimal imaging of the joint spaces.
, Q: The thoracic intervertebral foramina are _______ to the MSP and are demonstrated in the
________ position.
A: 90° to the MSP, lateral position
Rationale: The thoracic intervertebral foramina are best visualized in a lateral projection, which is
perpendicular to the midsagittal plane.
Q: Norepinephrine functions to raise the blood pressure, whereas nitroglycerin functions as a
_________, relaxing the walls of blood vessels and increasing circulation:
A: Vasodilator
Rationale: Norepinephrine constricts blood vessels to raise blood pressure, while nitroglycerin relaxes
the blood vessel walls, helping to improve blood circulation and lower blood pressure.
Q: Heparin is used to decrease coagulation and often used in the cardiovascular imaging suite to
inhibit coagulation on catheters. What is the term used to prevent clotting of blood?
A: Anticoagulant
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant that prevents the formation of blood clots. It is commonly used in
cardiovascular procedures, including catheterization, to reduce the risk of clot formation.
Q: Inflammation of the parotid gland is known as:
A: Parotitis
Rationale: Parotitis refers to the inflammation of the parotid glands, which are the largest salivary
glands located near the ears. This condition is often caused by infection.
Q: The ______ will have difficulty speaking as a result of redirection of the air past the vocal cords:
A: Tracheostomy patient
Rationale: Tracheostomy patients may have difficulty speaking because the tracheostomy tube bypasses
the vocal cords, which are essential for speech production.
Q: Gurgling or rattling sounds coming from the trachea indicate an excess accumulation of secretions,
requiring suction with ______ catheters:
A: Sterile
Rationale: Gurgling or rattling sounds indicate that the trachea is filled with excess secretions, which
require sterile suctioning to maintain airway clearance and prevent infection.
