Galen NSG 3100 Exams (1, 2, 3) | Fundamental Concepts
& Skills (2026/2027) – Verified Q&A
Nursing Fundamentals & Core Skills | Key Domains: Introduction to Nursing & Professional Identity
(Exam 1), Basic Needs & Clinical Skills (Exam 2), and Medication Administration & Safety (Exam 3) |
Expert-Aligned Structure | Complete Course Exam Bank Format
Introduction
This structured Galen NSG 3100 Exam Bank for 2026/2027 provides question sets for all three
major exams with correct answers and rationales. It encompasses the full spectrum of introductory
nursing fundamentals, from professional ethics and communication to the mastery of essential
clinical procedures and safe medication practices.
Exam Bank Structure:
• Exam 1: Professional Foundations: (60 QUESTIONS)
• Exam 2: Basic Skills & Care: (65 QUESTIONS)
• Exam 3: Safety & Medication: (70 QUESTIONS)
Answer Format
All correct answers must appear in bold and cyan blue, accompanied by concise rationales
explaining the core professional value, the correct step in a foundational nursing skill (e.g., hand
hygiene, vital signs, bed bath), the "rights" of medication administration and safety principle, and
why alternative options violate fundamental nursing standards or compromise patient safety.
Exam 1: Professional Foundations (Questions 1–60)
1. A nurse overhears a colleague making a derogatory comment about a client. What should
the nurse do?
A. Ignore it to avoid conflict
B. Report it to the charge nurse
C. Join in to fit in
D. Tell the client what was said
,B. Report it to the charge nurse
Professional conduct requires respectful treatment of clients. Reporting unprofessional behavior
protects the client and upholds ethical standards. Ignoring (A) or participating (C) is complicit. Telling
the client (D) may cause distress and is not the appropriate channel.
2. Which principle reflects the ethical concept of autonomy?
A. Acting in the client’s best interest
B. Avoiding harm
C. Respecting the client’s right to make informed decisions
D. Treating all clients fairly
C. Respecting the client’s right to make informed decisions
Autonomy is the right of competent individuals to make choices about their own care, including the
right to refuse treatment. Beneficence (A) is acting in the client’s best interest. Non-maleficence (B) is
avoiding harm. Justice (D) is fairness.
3. A client with decisional capacity demands discharge against medical advice (AMA). What
should the nurse do?
A. Physically prevent the client from leaving
B. Detain the client until the provider arrives
C. Document the AMA request and ensure the client signs the form
D. Call security to stop the client
C. Document the AMA request and ensure the client signs the form
A competent client has the legal right to leave AMA. The nurse must document the decision, ensure the
client understands the risks, and obtain a signed AMA form. Detaining (A, B, D) constitutes false
imprisonment—a criminal and civil offense.
,Exam 2: Basic Skills & Care (Questions 61–125)
61. A client with limited mobility is at risk for pressure injury. How often should the nurse
reposition the client?
A. Every 8 hours
B. Every 4 hours
C. Every 2 hours
D. Only when the client requests it
C. Every 2 hours
Standard of care for immobile clients is repositioning every 2 hours to relieve pressure on bony
prominences and maintain tissue perfusion. Less frequent turning (A, B) increases risk. Waiting for the
client to ask (D) is inappropriate for those with limited mobility or cognition.
62. Which site is most appropriate for assessing the pulse in an adult during routine vital
signs?
A. Apical
B. Radial
C. Carotid
D. Femoral
B. Radial
The radial pulse is the standard site for routine adult pulse assessment. Apical (A) is used for infants or
irregular rhythms. Carotid (C) is assessed in emergencies (e.g., CPR). Femoral (D) is used in infants or
when peripheral pulses are weak.
63. A client is on strict intake and output (I&O). Which item must be recorded?
A. Gelatin
, B. Ice cream
C. IV fluids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
I&O includes all fluids taken by mouth (even solids that melt at room temperature like gelatin and ice
cream) and IV fluids. Accurate measurement is essential for fluid balance, especially in heart or kidney
failure.
Exam 3: Safety & Medication (Questions 126–195)
126. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which action best demonstrates
adherence to the “Right Patient” principle?
A. Checking the medication label against the MAR
B. Verifying the client’s name and date of birth using the wristband
C. Confirming the route with the pharmacy
D. Calculating the dose twice
B. Verifying the client’s name and date of birth using the wristband
The “Right Patient” requires using two patient identifiers (e.g., name and DOB) from the
wristband—not room number or bed label. This prevents medication errors. Option A relates to “Right
Drug,” C to “Right Route,” and D to “Right Dose.”
127. A client is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subcutaneously daily. What is the
correct technique for the nurse?
A. Inject into the deltoid muscle
B. Massage the site after injection
& Skills (2026/2027) – Verified Q&A
Nursing Fundamentals & Core Skills | Key Domains: Introduction to Nursing & Professional Identity
(Exam 1), Basic Needs & Clinical Skills (Exam 2), and Medication Administration & Safety (Exam 3) |
Expert-Aligned Structure | Complete Course Exam Bank Format
Introduction
This structured Galen NSG 3100 Exam Bank for 2026/2027 provides question sets for all three
major exams with correct answers and rationales. It encompasses the full spectrum of introductory
nursing fundamentals, from professional ethics and communication to the mastery of essential
clinical procedures and safe medication practices.
Exam Bank Structure:
• Exam 1: Professional Foundations: (60 QUESTIONS)
• Exam 2: Basic Skills & Care: (65 QUESTIONS)
• Exam 3: Safety & Medication: (70 QUESTIONS)
Answer Format
All correct answers must appear in bold and cyan blue, accompanied by concise rationales
explaining the core professional value, the correct step in a foundational nursing skill (e.g., hand
hygiene, vital signs, bed bath), the "rights" of medication administration and safety principle, and
why alternative options violate fundamental nursing standards or compromise patient safety.
Exam 1: Professional Foundations (Questions 1–60)
1. A nurse overhears a colleague making a derogatory comment about a client. What should
the nurse do?
A. Ignore it to avoid conflict
B. Report it to the charge nurse
C. Join in to fit in
D. Tell the client what was said
,B. Report it to the charge nurse
Professional conduct requires respectful treatment of clients. Reporting unprofessional behavior
protects the client and upholds ethical standards. Ignoring (A) or participating (C) is complicit. Telling
the client (D) may cause distress and is not the appropriate channel.
2. Which principle reflects the ethical concept of autonomy?
A. Acting in the client’s best interest
B. Avoiding harm
C. Respecting the client’s right to make informed decisions
D. Treating all clients fairly
C. Respecting the client’s right to make informed decisions
Autonomy is the right of competent individuals to make choices about their own care, including the
right to refuse treatment. Beneficence (A) is acting in the client’s best interest. Non-maleficence (B) is
avoiding harm. Justice (D) is fairness.
3. A client with decisional capacity demands discharge against medical advice (AMA). What
should the nurse do?
A. Physically prevent the client from leaving
B. Detain the client until the provider arrives
C. Document the AMA request and ensure the client signs the form
D. Call security to stop the client
C. Document the AMA request and ensure the client signs the form
A competent client has the legal right to leave AMA. The nurse must document the decision, ensure the
client understands the risks, and obtain a signed AMA form. Detaining (A, B, D) constitutes false
imprisonment—a criminal and civil offense.
,Exam 2: Basic Skills & Care (Questions 61–125)
61. A client with limited mobility is at risk for pressure injury. How often should the nurse
reposition the client?
A. Every 8 hours
B. Every 4 hours
C. Every 2 hours
D. Only when the client requests it
C. Every 2 hours
Standard of care for immobile clients is repositioning every 2 hours to relieve pressure on bony
prominences and maintain tissue perfusion. Less frequent turning (A, B) increases risk. Waiting for the
client to ask (D) is inappropriate for those with limited mobility or cognition.
62. Which site is most appropriate for assessing the pulse in an adult during routine vital
signs?
A. Apical
B. Radial
C. Carotid
D. Femoral
B. Radial
The radial pulse is the standard site for routine adult pulse assessment. Apical (A) is used for infants or
irregular rhythms. Carotid (C) is assessed in emergencies (e.g., CPR). Femoral (D) is used in infants or
when peripheral pulses are weak.
63. A client is on strict intake and output (I&O). Which item must be recorded?
A. Gelatin
, B. Ice cream
C. IV fluids
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
I&O includes all fluids taken by mouth (even solids that melt at room temperature like gelatin and ice
cream) and IV fluids. Accurate measurement is essential for fluid balance, especially in heart or kidney
failure.
Exam 3: Safety & Medication (Questions 126–195)
126. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. Which action best demonstrates
adherence to the “Right Patient” principle?
A. Checking the medication label against the MAR
B. Verifying the client’s name and date of birth using the wristband
C. Confirming the route with the pharmacy
D. Calculating the dose twice
B. Verifying the client’s name and date of birth using the wristband
The “Right Patient” requires using two patient identifiers (e.g., name and DOB) from the
wristband—not room number or bed label. This prevents medication errors. Option A relates to “Right
Drug,” C to “Right Route,” and D to “Right Dose.”
127. A client is prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) 40 mg subcutaneously daily. What is the
correct technique for the nurse?
A. Inject into the deltoid muscle
B. Massage the site after injection
