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Question 1:
Which of the following is the first-line treatment for hypertension?
A) Beta-blockers
B) ACE inhibitors
C) Calcium channel blockers
D) Diuretics
CORRECT ANSWER: B) ACE inhibitors
Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly recommended as first-line treatment for
hypertension due to their effectiveness in lowering blood pressure and providing renal
protection.
Question 2:
What is the primary organ affected by liver cirrhosis?
A) Heart
B) Liver
C) Kidney
D) Lungs
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Liver
Rationale: Cirrhosis primarily affects the liver, leading to its progressive deterioration
and impaired function.
Question 3:
Which assessment finding is most indicative of heart failure?
A) Hyperactive bowel sounds
B) Pericardial friction rub
, Fall Semester 2025 – Ultimate Comprehensive Study Guide for
APEA Pre-Predictor Exam Preparation | Extensive Resource
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C) Jugular venous distention
D) Absent breath sounds
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Jugular venous distention
Rationale: Jugular venous distention is a classic sign of right-sided heart failure,
indicating increased venous pressure.
Question 4:
Which vaccination is recommended for adults aged 65 and older?
A) MMR
B) Tdap
C) Influenza
D) HPV
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Influenza
Rationale: The influenza vaccine is particularly recommended for older adults to
prevent seasonal flu and its complications.
Question 5:
What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?
A) Stress
B) Obesity
C) Renal disease
D) Hyperlipidemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C) Renal disease
Rationale: Renal disease is the most frequent cause of secondary hypertension due to
its impact on fluid retention and blood pressure regulation.
, Fall Semester 2025 – Ultimate Comprehensive Study Guide for
APEA Pre-Predictor Exam Preparation | Extensive Resource
Featuring Key Nursing Concepts, Evidence-Based Practice
Guidelines, Targeted Test-Taking Strategies, In-Depth Subject
Reviews, and Thousands of Practice Questions to Maximize
Success in Nursing Assessments
Question 6:
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with renal failure?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Hyperkalemia
Rationale: Renal failure often causes decreased excretion of potassium, leading to
hyperkalemia.
Question 7:
The primary purpose of beta-blockers in treating heart failure is to:
A) Decrease heart rate
B) Increase cardiac output
C) Decrease blood pressure
D) Improve metabolic rate
CORRECT ANSWER: A) Decrease heart rate
Rationale: Beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial oxygen demand, which are
beneficial in managing heart failure.
Question 8:
A patient presents with a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The first step in
management should be:
, Fall Semester 2025 – Ultimate Comprehensive Study Guide for
APEA Pre-Predictor Exam Preparation | Extensive Resource
Featuring Key Nursing Concepts, Evidence-Based Practice
Guidelines, Targeted Test-Taking Strategies, In-Depth Subject
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Success in Nursing Assessments
A) Administer aspirin
B) Obtain an EKG
C) Administer nitroglycerin
D) Perform a physical examination
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Obtain an EKG
Rationale: An EKG is essential for diagnosing possible myocardial infarction or other
cardiac issues.
Question 9:
Which condition is characterized by an increase in the production of red blood
cells?
A) Anemia
B) Polycythemia
C) Leukemia
D) Thrombocytopenia
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Polycythemia
Rationale: Polycythemia refers to an excess production of red blood cells, often
resulting in increased blood viscosity.
Question 10:
What is the preferred initial imaging study for suspected pulmonary embolism?
A) CT angiography
B) Chest X-ray
C) MRI
D) Ultrasound
CORRECT ANSWER: A) CT angiography