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APEA Predictor Exam 2026 | Verified Nurse Practitioner Practice Questions & Comprehensive Study Guide

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APEA Predictor Exam 2026 | Verified Nurse Practitioner
Practice Questions & Comprehensive Study Guide



A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that
has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of
appetite. The NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST
appropriate intervention?

Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen

Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and
heterophil antibody test.

Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase - ANSWER-Obtain an
urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase




Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar
virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following
incubation period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white
tonsillar exudates and lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly
can be present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than
15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the Monospot. In addition,
neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC



A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination
for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx.
Of urinary tract infections. The initial treatment should be:

a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day

b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days

, Page 2 of 13


c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days

d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose - ANSWER-. trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day




Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate
medication to treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of
community resistance to TMPS >20%^, another medication should be substituted. In
men, the appropriate length of time is 7 10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days
for uncomplicated UTI



Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?

Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)

Retinoic acid (Retin A)

Topical tetracycline

Isotretinoin - ANSWER-Isotretinoin




Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with
severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the
patient. A woman of childbearing age must use an effective method of contraception
because isotretinoin is 1 There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication
because of the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a
pregnancy category X.



An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She should be
instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy

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