HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found? -
(answer) Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting
speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - (answer) Ankyloglossia
When is tooth eruption complete? - (answer) Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing
jaw
When does mixed dentition begin? - (answer) Eruption of first permanent tooth
How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - (answer) 20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary
molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - (answer) The first statement is true and the second is false
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - (answer) reduced permeability
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar? -
(answer) Distolingual
Which is true regarding the height of contour? - (answer) Greatest elevation of tooth either
incisocervically or occlusocervically
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? - (answer) 14
primary; 10 permanent
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - (answer) line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incised edge
or angle? - (answer) IV
,HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - (answer) Oblique
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - (answer)
Mandibular
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? - (answer) VII
Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - (answer) mandibular foramen on
medial surface of mandible
Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - (answer) Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - (answer) Synovial
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland
secretion? - (answer) autonomic; sympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can
repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? - (answer) First statement
is true second statement is false
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - (answer) Aciduric
Anaerobe bacteria - (answer) grow only in the absence of oxygen
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - (answer) capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - (answer) Psychrophils
,HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Endotoxin is a virulence property of - (answer) gram-negative bacteria
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - (answer) enter host cells before they can multiply
Which is treated with nystatin? - (answer) Candidiasis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B
vaccine? - (answer) Anti-HBs
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves? -
(answer) I
Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis? -
(answer) Streptococcus
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin - (answer) C. Nizoral
Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - (answer) Repaired congenital heart disease
It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart disease,
and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic predication? -
(answer) Renal dialysis shunt
A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - (answer) take medication four times a
day
, HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS" - (answer)
schedule II controlled substance
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? - (answer)
Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - (answer)
Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure)
Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - (answer) Kale!
;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - (answer) Albuterol
short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - (answer) statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb
calcium. - (answer) Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb calcium.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - (answer) Steak, brown rice, and corn
Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli, strawberries,
and cantaloupe
Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - (answer) Iron
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis found? -
(answer) Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement affecting
speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - (answer) Ankyloglossia
When is tooth eruption complete? - (answer) Tooth has made contact with its antagonists in opposing
jaw
When does mixed dentition begin? - (answer) Eruption of first permanent tooth
How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - (answer) 20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge of a maxillary
molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - (answer) The first statement is true and the second is false
Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - (answer) reduced permeability
Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second premolar? -
(answer) Distolingual
Which is true regarding the height of contour? - (answer) Greatest elevation of tooth either
incisocervically or occlusocervically
How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? - (answer) 14
primary; 10 permanent
Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - (answer) line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the incised edge
or angle? - (answer) IV
,HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - (answer) Oblique
Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - (answer)
Mandibular
Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? - (answer) VII
Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - (answer) mandibular foramen on
medial surface of mandible
Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - (answer) Sublingual
Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - (answer) Synovial
Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of salivary gland
secretion? - (answer) autonomic; sympathetic
Destroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated enamel can
repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? - (answer) First statement
is true second statement is false
Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - (answer) Aciduric
Anaerobe bacteria - (answer) grow only in the absence of oxygen
Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - (answer) capsule
Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - (answer) Psychrophils
,HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Endotoxin is a virulence property of - (answer) gram-negative bacteria
When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - (answer) enter host cells before they can multiply
Which is treated with nystatin? - (answer) Candidiasis
Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the hepatitis B
vaccine? - (answer) Anti-HBs
Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination gloves? -
(answer) I
Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and pharyngitis? -
(answer) Streptococcus
Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin - (answer) C. Nizoral
Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - (answer) Repaired congenital heart disease
It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart disease,
and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic predication? -
(answer) Renal dialysis shunt
A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - (answer) take medication four times a
day
, HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM 2 LATEST VERSIONS 2025/DENTAL HYGIENE HESI EXAM 400+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states "NO REFILLS" - (answer)
schedule II controlled substance
Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide? - (answer)
Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? - (answer)
Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood pressure)
Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - (answer) Kale!
;milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - (answer) Albuterol
short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - (answer) statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps absorb
calcium. - (answer) Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help absorb calcium.
Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - (answer) Steak, brown rice, and corn
Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli, strawberries,
and cantaloupe
Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - (answer) Iron
