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NUR2571 Professional Nursing II Final Exam Quiz Bank 2026/2027 - Rated A Guide for Rasmussen College

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Prepare for your Rasmussen College NUR2571 Professional Nursing II final exam with this Rated A quiz bank. Features the latest 2026/2027 verified questions and answers covering advanced nursing concepts, leadership, ethics, and evidence-based practice for professional development.

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NUR2571 Professional Nursing II
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December 11, 2025
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NUR2571 Professional Nursing II Final Exam
Quiz Bank 2026/2027 - Rated A Guide for
Rasmussen College

Case Study 1: Patient M.J.

68-year-old with CHF (EF 30 %) and Type 2 DM admitted with acute dyspnea, 3 kg
weight gain in 48 h, and frothy pink sputum.

Which assessment finding, noted 15 minutes after admission, best confirms the nurse’s
primary hypothesis of acute decompensated heart failure?
1.​ A) SpO₂ 89 % on 4 L nasal cannula​
B) Respiratory rate 32 with accessory muscle use​
C) S₃ gallop auscultated at apex​
D) Fine crackles two-thirds up both posterior lung fields​
Correct Answer: D​
Correct Answer Text: Fine crackles two-thirds up both posterior lung fields​
Rationale: 2026 AHA guidelines emphasize that bilateral pulmonary congestion
(fine crackles > half lung field) is the most specific bedside cue for ADHF-related
fluid overload. While hypoxia (A) and tachypnea (B) support respiratory distress,
crackles (D) directly reflect elevated LV filling pressures. S₃ (C) is insensitive in
older adults.


M.J.’s provider orders high-dose IV furosemide 80 mg bolus followed by 10 mg/hr
continuous infusion. Which laboratory value requires immediate follow-up before
initiation?
2.​ A) Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L​
B) Blood urea nitrogen 28 mg/dL​
C) Serum creatinine 1.4 mg/dL (baseline 1.3)​
D) Serum glucose 198 mg/dL​
Correct Answer: A​
Correct Answer Text: Serum potassium 3.2 mEq/L​
Rationale: Loop diuretics potentiate hypokalemia and increase digoxin toxicity

, risk; therefore, K⁺ < 3.5 mEq/L must be corrected first per 2026 ADHF pathway.
Mild creatinine rise (C) is acceptable; BUN (B) and glucose (D) do not preclude
diuresis.


After 6 hours, M.J. has produced 1,350 mL urine but now reports “throbbing” right-sided
headache 8/10. BP 210/110 mmHg, HR 92. Which action is most appropriate?
3.​ A) Administer PO nifedipine 10 mg capsule bite-and-swallow​
B) Start IV nicardipine 5 mg/hr and titrate per protocol​
C) Hold furosemide and give 500 mL NS over 30 min​
D) Obtain CT head without contrast immediately​
Correct Answer: B​
Correct Answer Text: Start IV nicardipine 5 mg/hr and titrate per protocol​
Rationale: 2026 AHA hypertensive emergency guidance endorses short-acting IV
calcium-channel blocker (B) for controlled reduction (goal 10-20 % in first hour)
while maintaining diuresis. Sublingual nifedipine (A) causes precipitous drop;
saline bolus (C) worsens fluid overload; CT (D) is premature without neuro-deficit.


Case Study 2: Patient K.L.

55-year-old post-cholecystectomy (laparoscopic) POD #1, history of COPD (GOLD stage
2) and chronic lower-back pain on oxycodone 5 mg PO q6h PRN.

At 0200, K.L. reports “can’t catch my breath.” Respirations 28, SpO₂ 90 % on 2 L NC
(baseline 94 %), scattered expiratory wheezes, temperature 37.9 °C. Which action
should the nurse take first?
4.​ A) Increase oxygen to 4 L and obtain ABG​
B) Coach patient in pursed-lip breathing and administer prescribed albuterol
nebulizer​
C) Call provider for STAT chest X-ray​
D) Administer oxycodone 5 mg to reduce anxiety-related dyspnea​
Correct Answer: B​
Correct Answer Text: Coach patient in pursed-lip breathing and administer
prescribed albuterol nebulizer​
Rationale: Initial management follows 2026 GOLD COPD exacerbation pathway:
bronchodilator therapy and patient coaching (B) address airway obstruction first.
Increasing O₂ (A) may blunt hypoxic drive; imaging (C) is secondary; opioids (D)
risk respiratory depression.
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