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FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS 2025–2026 | A+ GRADED, GUARANTEED
PASS MASTER REVIEW PACK (UPDATED EDITION)COMPREHENSIVE
VERIFIED PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED
CLINICAL RATIONALES | EXPERT-REVIEWED FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER
STUDY GUIDE
A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to control her Stage II
hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is currently complaining of pain on
her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3
times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. She is still in pain and would like something stronger. Which of the
following statements is the best explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her disease?
A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true
-ANSWER-B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic.
RATIONALE:NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes the
kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal failure by decreasing renal blood flow.
2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:
A) Bacterialvaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
-ANSWER-D) Chlamydia trachomatis
RATIONALE:Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis,
and trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining , fallopian
tubes, and pelvic cavity.
The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Gastriculcer
-ANSWER-B) Acute appendicitis.
RATIONALE:Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding, rebound
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tenderness, boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and psoas sign. A positive obturator sign
occurs when pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The
psoas sign is positive when pain occurs with passive extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on
his/her side with knees extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of his/her thigh at the hip.
Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the following except:
A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure
C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
-ANSWER-D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
RATIONALE :Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed rest with bath-
room privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely following urine protein and serum protein,
creatinine, and platelet counts. Oral medications are not used as first-line treatment.
All of the following services are covered under Medicare Part A except:
A) Inpatienthospitalizations
B) Medicines administered to a patient while hospitalized
C) Nursing home care
D) Surgeons
-ANSWER-C) Nursing home care
RATIONALE:Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care given in a certified
skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is custodial care (help with bathing, dressing, using a
bathroom, and eating). This care is not covered by Medicare A.
A 28-year-old student is seen in the school health clinic with complaints of a hacking cough that is
productive of small amounts of sputum and a runny nose. He does not take any medications, denies
any allergies, and has no significant medical history. Physical examination reveals a low-grade
temperature of 99.9 degrees Fahrenheit, respirations of 16/min, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and
diffuse fine crackles in the base of the lungs. A chest radiograph (x-ray) shows diffuse infiltrates on the
lower lobe of the right lung. The total white blood cell count is 10,500/uL. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires disease
-ANSWER-B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
RATIONALE:Mycoplasma pneumonia is the organism most com- monly seen in children and young
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adults. It is easily spread from droplets, from sneezing and coughing, in close proximity. Diagnosis is
based on symptoms and x-ray results of infiltrates in lower lobes.
A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 days after a purified protein derivative (PPD)
test. What minimum size of induration would be considered posi- tive for this patient?
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm
C) 10 mm
RATIONALEThe PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48 hours after the test
is given. The PPD result must have induration and measure 10 mm or greater to be positive in a low-risk
patient. Induration (firmness with palpation) must be present. If the site has erythema but no induration,
result would be negative. Color is not important.
All of the following are correct statements regarding the role of the person named in a durable power
of attorney except:
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the patient's life such as financial
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life support when that life support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
-ANSWER-D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
RATIONALE:The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated by the patient to
make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions regarding the patient's private affairs in the event
that the patient becomes incompetent and unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the ability
to override the agent's decision.
All of the following are true statements regarding Munchausen syndrome except:
A) It is considered a mental illness
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention from health care providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along with a past history of
frequent hospitalizations
-ANSWER-B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
RATIONALE:Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes a medical illness
or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers. These patients commonly use the emergency
department frequently to gain attention.
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Which of the following antihypertensive medications should the nurse practitioner avoid when
treating patients with emphysema?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Beta-blockers
D) Diuretics
-ANSWER-C) Beta-blockers
RATIONALE:Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema. Studies have
shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), increased airway
hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of bronchodilator response to beta agonists in patients receiving
non-selective beta- blockers and high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms but denies difficulty swallowing
or breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis and asthma. Which of the following
interventions is most appropriate?
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be performed to determine
possible causes of hives. The patient denied difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no
medical emergency to require calling 911.
Which of the following findings is most likely in young primigravidas with pregnancy-induced
hypertension?
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency
-ANSWER-B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
RATIONALE:Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include edema of the
face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision, elevated BP, proteinuria, and headaches.
Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 deficiency anemia?
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica
B) An abnormal neurological exam
FNP PRACTICE QUESTIONS 2025–2026 | A+ GRADED, GUARANTEED
PASS MASTER REVIEW PACK (UPDATED EDITION)COMPREHENSIVE
VERIFIED PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS & DETAILED
CLINICAL RATIONALES | EXPERT-REVIEWED FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER
STUDY GUIDE
A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to control her Stage II
hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is currently complaining of pain on
her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3
times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. She is still in pain and would like something stronger. Which of the
following statements is the best explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her disease?
A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true
-ANSWER-B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic.
RATIONALE:NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes the
kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal failure by decreasing renal blood flow.
2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:
A) Bacterialvaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis
-ANSWER-D) Chlamydia trachomatis
RATIONALE:Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis,
and trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix, endometrial lining , fallopian
tubes, and pelvic cavity.
The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:
A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Gastriculcer
-ANSWER-B) Acute appendicitis.
RATIONALE:Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding, rebound
,2|Page
tenderness, boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and psoas sign. A positive obturator sign
occurs when pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip from 90 degrees hip/knee flexion. The
psoas sign is positive when pain occurs with passive extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on
his/her side with knees extended, or when pain occurs with active flexion of his/her thigh at the hip.
Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the following except:
A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure
C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
-ANSWER-D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure
RATIONALE :Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed rest with bath-
room privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely following urine protein and serum protein,
creatinine, and platelet counts. Oral medications are not used as first-line treatment.
All of the following services are covered under Medicare Part A except:
A) Inpatienthospitalizations
B) Medicines administered to a patient while hospitalized
C) Nursing home care
D) Surgeons
-ANSWER-C) Nursing home care
RATIONALE:Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care given in a certified
skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is custodial care (help with bathing, dressing, using a
bathroom, and eating). This care is not covered by Medicare A.
A 28-year-old student is seen in the school health clinic with complaints of a hacking cough that is
productive of small amounts of sputum and a runny nose. He does not take any medications, denies
any allergies, and has no significant medical history. Physical examination reveals a low-grade
temperature of 99.9 degrees Fahrenheit, respirations of 16/min, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and
diffuse fine crackles in the base of the lungs. A chest radiograph (x-ray) shows diffuse infiltrates on the
lower lobe of the right lung. The total white blood cell count is 10,500/uL. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires disease
-ANSWER-B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
RATIONALE:Mycoplasma pneumonia is the organism most com- monly seen in children and young
,3|Page
adults. It is easily spread from droplets, from sneezing and coughing, in close proximity. Diagnosis is
based on symptoms and x-ray results of infiltrates in lower lobes.
A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 days after a purified protein derivative (PPD)
test. What minimum size of induration would be considered posi- tive for this patient?
A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm
C) 10 mm
RATIONALEThe PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48 hours after the test
is given. The PPD result must have induration and measure 10 mm or greater to be positive in a low-risk
patient. Induration (firmness with palpation) must be present. If the site has erythema but no induration,
result would be negative. Color is not important.
All of the following are correct statements regarding the role of the person named in a durable power
of attorney except:
A) The agent's decisions are legally binding
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the patient's life such as financial
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life support when that life support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
-ANSWER-D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions
RATIONALE:The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated by the patient to
make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions regarding the patient's private affairs in the event
that the patient becomes incompetent and unable to make his/her own decisions. No one has the ability
to override the agent's decision.
All of the following are true statements regarding Munchausen syndrome except:
A) It is considered a mental illness
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention from health care providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along with a past history of
frequent hospitalizations
-ANSWER-B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
RATIONALE:Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes a medical illness
or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers. These patients commonly use the emergency
department frequently to gain attention.
, 4|Page
Which of the following antihypertensive medications should the nurse practitioner avoid when
treating patients with emphysema?
A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Beta-blockers
D) Diuretics
-ANSWER-C) Beta-blockers
RATIONALE:Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema. Studies have
shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1), increased airway
hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of bronchodilator response to beta agonists in patients receiving
non-selective beta- blockers and high doses of cardioselective beta-blockers.
A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms but denies difficulty swallowing
or breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis and asthma. Which of the following
interventions is most appropriate?
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911
A) Perform a complete and thorough history
Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be performed to determine
possible causes of hives. The patient denied difficulty with swallowing and breathing, so there was no
medical emergency to require calling 911.
Which of the following findings is most likely in young primigravidas with pregnancy-induced
hypertension?
A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency
-ANSWER-B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
RATIONALE:Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include edema of the
face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision, elevated BP, proteinuria, and headaches.
Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 deficiency anemia?
A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica
B) An abnormal neurological exam
